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Old 01-15-2007, 07:04 PM   #41
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That may well be the Christian response (of course it is), but I hope its not the historian's response.
Certainly not, but it's certainly one perspective.
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Old 01-15-2007, 07:05 PM   #42
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I'll give you this Ideologist, at least you are making a respectable effort. I say good work to you.
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Old 01-15-2007, 07:08 PM   #43
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To which the Christian response is, well, that of course it does; Psalm 22 is a prophecy of the Messiah.
Given a choice between

(1) passage A is a miracuous prophecy of the future true events in passage B
(2) the events in passage B are a literary invention build around the ancient and revered text of passage A

parsimony demands that, all other things being equal, we go with (2).
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Old 01-15-2007, 07:11 PM   #44
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Do you want me to work on refuting all of the specific points here, or should I just try to provide a summary? (I'm not used to being forced to respond to three people at the same time, each of whom bringing up sources that I need to reread.)
It's up to you - however much you want to do. I just wanted you to realize that there are informed people who disagree with your position. I don't expect that anyone here will convert anyone else.
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Old 01-15-2007, 07:35 PM   #45
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See discussion of it here:

http://www.rationalrevolution.net/ar...history.htm#10

Its almost certainly a later addition based on a mistake made by Origen.
Thanks for the link. I am quite familiar with the Origen quotes and with the Hegesippus quotes, and I quite agree that Origen has confused Josephus with Hegesippus.

(I see my translation of the TOC for book 18 made it onto that page; thanks for the footnote.)

Ben.
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Old 01-15-2007, 08:23 PM   #46
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Thanks for the link. I am quite familiar with the Origen quotes and with the Hegesippus quotes, and I quite agree that Origen has confused Josephus with Hegesippus.

(I see my translation of the TOC for book 18 made it onto that page; thanks for the footnote.)

Ben.
I may have even gotten the idea from you for that matter
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Old 01-15-2007, 08:38 PM   #47
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Originally Posted by The Evil One View Post
Given a choice between

(1) passage A is a miracuous prophecy of the future true events in passage B
(2) the events in passage B are a literary invention build around the ancient and revered text of passage A

parsimony demands that, all other things being equal, we go with (2).
This falsely assumes that those are the only options. It's also possible that the Passion was done in deliberate imitation of Psalm 22; given Jesus' background, he should have been able to quote it easily, for example. Now, there are parts that might have been difficult to arrange, but none of the Passion is obviously unreasonable for an incident such as this.

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It's up to you - however much you want to do. I just wanted you to realize that there are informed people who disagree with your position.
Oh, I'm aware. I just believe they're wrong.

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I don't expect that anyone here will convert anyone else.
No, but it's always worth trying.

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Originally Posted by The Ignatius Forgeries
The real Ignatius, lived about 110 AD. A total of 15 letters were allegedly written by Ignatius. We take the view that all 15 of Ignatius's letters are forgeries. The fact that neither Eusebius (300 AD) nor Jerome (495 AD) make reference to the first 8 Ignatian letters (
Tarsians, Antiochians, Hero, Philippians, Maria to Ignatius, Mary, 1st. St. John, 2nd St. John, Virgin Mary) makes it likely that they were composed as late as 300-500 AD. It is this reason that all scholars reject these first 8 letters as forgeries.
This is quite fair. It's worth noting that several of the forged epistles can be found in a heavily interpolated form, in a collection of the 4th century.

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Some scholars, however accept that the "7 Ignatian letters" are genuine. These 7 Ignatian letters are: Polycarp, Ephesians, Magnesians, Philadelphians, Romans, Smyrnaeans, Trallians. We feel these scholars are in error and that even the 7 Ignatian letters are forgeries. (We have colour coded the quotes below.)
Well, here we go.

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We take the view that all of Ignatius' writings are forgeries and unreliable. There are fifteen books attributed to Ignatius. Eight are surely forgeries and spurious. Seven are considered by some as genuine, although many scholars also believe they are all forgeries. Again, we view all Ignatius' writings as forgeries. They purport to be written by Ignatius, who lived about 110 AD. We believe it is clear, however, that they are all no earlier than 220 AD, more likely 250 AD. Although they are forgeries, they do represent the views of the author in time of 250 AD.
Interesting.

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We see a clear change from the Bible pattern, from a plurality of Elders (also called bishops) , deacons and saints, to a single Bishop who ruled the congregations and under him were a plurality of elders, then deacons and saints. At this point in history, congregations were still autonomous and independent, but we also see the seeds of development for the Papal system, where one man rules over all churches world wide which first occurred in 606 AD.
This seems to be written from a clear Protestant perspective, which would be in keeping with the rest of Bible.ca. I don't see the exact denomination listed, though.

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Within one of the "7 genuine Ignatius letters", is a powerful clue it is clearly a forgery from a later time. The very first historical reference to the "Catholic Church"
Everything has to start somewhere. Keep in mind that "catholic" comes from καθολικός, meaning universal, which makes sense given the time period.

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is nestled warmly between very strong commands to obey the bishop as you would Jesus Christ and the only valid baptism or communion service is one by the bishop's authority.
Justifications for the doctrines, yes.

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We feel that is it no co-incidence that the first historical reference to the church as the "Catholic Church" is contained within one of the "7 genuine Ignatius letters".
Um. If they appeared in the disputed letters, then they would have needed some other early genuine source, as the disputed letters would necessarily have to be written after the invention of the term.

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Schaff comments: "been found in this letter to the Romans, especially as in this letter we first find the use of the phrase "Catholic Church" in patristic writings." (Philip Schaff: Ante-Nicene Fathers, Vol. I, Introductory Note To The Epistle Of Ignatius To The Ephesians.) We feel it is proof enough to reject all as forgeries.
...what? This is absurd. You can't dispute seven letters based on a dispute of one of them, and you certainly can't dismiss it simply because you find one of its doctrines suspect.

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"See that ye all follow the bishop, even as Jesus Christ does the Father ... Let no man do anything connected with the Church without the bishop. Let that be deemed a proper Eucharist, which is [administered] either by the bishop, or by one to whom he has entrusted it. Wherever the bishop shall appear, there let the multitude [of the people] also be; even as, wherever Jesus Christ is, there is the Catholic Church. It is not lawful without the bishop either to baptize or to celebrate a love-feast; but whatsoever he shall approve of, that is also pleasing to God, so that everything that is done may be secure and valid. (The Epistle of Ignatius to the Smyrnaeans, Chapter VIII.-Let Nothing Be Done Without the Bishop.)
Irenaeus was a Bishop, after all.

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# Having said this, the Ignatian letters do represent real history for the dates they were actually written. Forgeries yes, but even the forgeries prove that there was no one bishop over the church universal.
...um.

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The first 8 letters of Ignatius do provide insights into what a the 4th-5th century author wished Ignatius had said in support of the authors current setting. The 7 letters of Ignatius being written probably around 250 AD, likewise give an insight into what was going on in 250 AD.
We therefore date the 8 letters of Ignatius at 300-500 AD and the 7 letters of Ignatius at about 250 AD.
This seems pretty spurious.

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It is now the universal opinion of critics, that the first eight of these professedly Ignatian letters are spurious. They bear in themselves indubitable proofs of being the production of a later age than that in which Ignatius lived. Neither Eusebius nor Jerome makes the least reference to them; and they are now by common consent set aside as forgeries, which were at various dates, and to serve special purposes, put forth under the name of the celebrated Bishop of Antioch." (Philip Schaff, Ante-Nicene Fathers, Introductory Note To The Epistle Of Ignatius To The Ephesians)
Sure.

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The whole story of Ignatius is more legendary than real, and his writings are subject to grave suspicion of fraudulent interpolation. We have three different versions of the Ignatian Epistles, but only one of them can be genuine; either the smaller Greek version, or the lately discovered Syriac. In the latter, which contains only three epistles, most of the passages on the episcopate are wanting, indeed; yet the leading features of the institution appear even here" (History of the Christian Church, Philip Shaff, Vol 2, ch 4)
They don't seem to offer any basis for the first statement. As for the second, the reason the Syriac version contains fewer passages is because it is abridged.

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Already, in the infancy of the episcopate, began the second stage of development, that of express emphasis upon its importance. Ignatius of Antioch was the first to represent this stage. Again and again, in his epistles, he urges obedience to the bishop, warns against doing any thing without the bishop, represents the bishop as standing to the congregation as the vicegerent of Christ. At the same time, he regarded each bishop as limited to his own congregation, and recognized no essential distinctions within the episcopal body. Ignatius, however, appears to have been an exception to his age, in the degree of emphasis which he put upon the episcopal dignity. He stands so nearly alone in this respect, that some have been disposed to question the genuineness of the epistles attributed to him. Baur declares it impossible that any writer of so early an age could have uttered such high episcopal notions as appear in the so-called Ignatian Epistles." (Henry C. Sheldon, History of the Christian Church, Vol 1, p 147)
I can quote too! "While it can hardly be said that there is at present any unanimous agreement on the subject, the best modern criticism favors the authenticity of the seven letters mentioned by Eusebius. Even such eminent non-Catholic critics as Zahn, Lightfoot, and Harnack hold this view. Perhaps the best evidence of their authenticity is to be found in the letter of Polycarp to the Philippians, which mentions each of them by name. As an intimate friend of Ignatius, Polycarp, writing shortly after the martyr's death, bears contemporaneous witness to the authenticity of these letters, unless, indeed, that of Polycarp itself be regarded as interpolated or forged. When, furthermore, we take into consideration the passage of Irenaeus (Adv. Haer., V, xxviii, 4) found in the original Greek in Eusebius (Hist. eccI., III, xxxvi), in which he refers to the letter to the Romans. (iv, I) in the following words: "Just as one of our brethren said, condemned to the wild beasts in martyrdom for his faith", the evidence of authenticity becomes compelling. The romance of Lucian of Samosata, "De morte peregrini", written in 167, bears incontestable evidence that the writer was not only familiar with the Ignatian letters, but even made use of them. Harnack, who was not always so minded, describes these proofs as "testimony as strong to the genuineness of the epistles as any that can be conceived of" (Expositor, ser. 3, III, p. 11)." (Catholic Encyclopedia)

Most of the rest isn't substantial;
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Perhaps the church in Antioch truly was the original festering pot of the false doctrine of apostate church government we see today in the Roman Catholic and Orthodox churches.
Quote:
Only a man of depraved mind with an evil thirst for power would ever equate the authority of a bishop with Jesus Christ.
*cough, yawn*
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Old 01-16-2007, 08:43 AM   #48
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given Jesus' background, he should have been able to quote it easily, for example.
Isn’t this essentially assuming its own conclusion? How do you know anything about “Jesus' background” except in the very story that is under dispute?

In other words, Jesus' background is not a "given".

dq
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Old 01-16-2007, 03:59 PM   #49
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Isn’t this essentially assuming its own conclusion? How do you know anything about “Jesus' background” except in the very story that is under dispute?

In other words, Jesus' background is not a "given".
Would "given what is traditionally said about Jesus" satisfy you? They mean very nearly the same thing.
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Old 01-16-2007, 03:59 PM   #50
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for our purposes, that is.
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