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Old 10-02-2007, 04:52 PM   #561
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Dave's post look more and more like Santiago's.

Dave, I see you finally tried to address Dean's objection to your naming those toledoths "colophons"

And utterly failed.

You REALLY believe that the phrase "these are the generations of..." is similar to "this is the tablet of"?

What is the similarity, dave?

That both sentences contain a name (sometimes)?

That both start with "this is" or "these are"?

That makes them both colophons, somehow? Are you sure you have a firm grasp of what a colophon is? And what it says?

Give me a break.

At this point, I'm pretty sure you SEE the difference- but you are too stubborn to admit it.
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Old 10-02-2007, 07:16 PM   #562
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Originally Posted by afdave View Post
I have elsewhere claimed that the Documentary Hypothesis (JEDP Theory/Oral Tradition) is receiving increasing skepticism by scholars and I have claimed that the assumptions which underpin the DH have all been refuted.

I believe that the Book of Genesis is a compilation of written records and have written about various Genesis Tablet Theories HERE , HERE and HERE (Footnote 44)

Wikipedia has an article on the Wiseman Hypothesis (Tablet Theory of Genesis) here ... http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wiseman_hypothesis ... in which they refer to my blog article and other sources.

Dean Anderson wants to debate me ................
If I understand you correctly, the issue is whether the present Book of Genesis was written down from tablets or from oral traditions... and scholars have been debating the issue. But then it is obvious that the scholars ASSUME that the extant Book of Genesis was not written down by a prophet or God-inspired writer. I notice that they [or you and friend] ASSUME that some prophet or prophets received the information, which he either wrote down or transmitted orally unto others.

Is there any evidence that the exant Book of Genesis is NOT the original NARRATION of events? (If it is the original narration, then there is no oral tradition behind it and no tablets before it.)

Is there any information or any clue as to when Genesis-1 was narrated? And when Genesis-2 was narrated? Presumably the other chapters were narrated afterwords... according to their sequence in the extant Book of Genesis.

From a textual analysis, I see that Genesis-1 was narrated when Canaan was already established, when Ugarit and Ebla had cuiform writers, and Biblical names of persons and gods were in common use there. Most importantly, while Genesis-1 presents the Elohim (one male and one female), the ministers of El are absent from the Biblical creation scene. (Micha'El, Satan'El, gabri'El, et al, will appear out of nowhere in the Bible later on, but Genesis-1 is obviously a reduced-revised Canaanite pantheon. So, the narration (and possibly the writing down of the Hebrew version of the Canaanite supreme deity) is relatively late, long after the hayday of the Ebla empire, where cuneiform was used for writing down their own language.

I see that Genesis-2 was narrated when the Tigris and the Euphrtaes had already their names, and when (judging from Adam and sons), agricultures had already been established; and, of course, the very first Biblical humans were endowed with speech and all other Homo sapiens attributes. Needless to say, writing had already been established in Sumer. So, the first Hebrew narrator of Genesis-2 (whether it was Adam or Moses or somebobody else) may have written down the creation account.

It is impossible for there to be ONE narrator/writer of Gen.-1 and Gen.-2, since the humans by the fiat of the Elohim are different from the breathed-in clay Adam and the rib-extracted Eve. There are two Gods, two different creation performances, two sequences in what is created, and, therefore, two narrators/writers. It is possible, however, that the first Hebrew narrator or prophet or writen was ONE -- who made use of TWO traditions, whether oral or written down. Why, it may be the compiler of the extant Book of Genesis that combined two different oral or written traditions.

Moses could not have been the first Hebrew to tell two tales, precisely because he imposed only one God on the Israelites. So, he was a prophet of Yahweh, who was already known as a creator. But he may also have trasmitted the creator-story of Yah, since in Genesis-2, the word "elohim" has already become a mere adjective: "Yahweh elohim" in effect means "divine Yah" or "the creative [Elohim-like] Yah."

In effect, Moses repudiates the Cananite/Arabic Elohim and opts for the divine architect/farmer. Where does Yah come from, since he does not come from the Canaanites? Ya seems to be older than His first presence in a Hebrew prophet. He was known by the Eblaites (before and apart from the Hebrews), and the Bible itself lacks the awareness that "Yahveh "is, first of all , a vocative or invocation name, and then a subject-noun (along with Yah/Yoh/Yeh), as one can figure from other languages.

You ask: Are the sources of the Book of Genesis oral or written? That would be interesting to know, but first one has to establish the origins or gushing-forths of the two accounts of creation. It seems to me they go much further back than the extant Book of Genesis, and that originally they were spoken forth rather than written down as letters or for record-keeping.

The Table of Nations could not have been narrated and/or written down until the (historically) youngest of the nations was already established and generally known in the then-world (Middle East). (In a post somewhere or elsewhere, I noted down the years of the flourishing of the listed youngest nation, which tells pretty much when the extant Book of Genesis , or part of it, was composed.)
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Old 10-03-2007, 12:14 AM   #563
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Arkle!

I spend an evening away from the computer, and come back to four pages of posts!

It may take me a while to catch up, here - so apologies if I miss anything...
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Old 10-03-2007, 01:28 AM   #564
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Quote:
Originally Posted by afdave View Post
Dean made a post recently providing supposed evidence against the Mosaic authorship of the Penateuch. http://www.iidb.org/vbb/showthread.p...05#post4823205 His most important point was
Quote:
(Note: The biggest piece of evidence that Moses did not write the Torah is the archaeological evidence that there was no Exodus or Conquest, and therefore that it is incredibly unlikely that Moses ever existed. However, for the sake of argument, I am assuming in this thread that Moses did exist, and therefore my evidence and arguments here do not presuppose that he was merely a legendary figure.)
If you read what you quoted here, you will see that far from being my "most important" point, it was something that - although I acknowledged it to be true - I was prepared to waive for the sake of argument.

In other words, all through this thread I have assumed that Moses existed.

If you look at my earlier posts (and indeed my original debate challenge) you will see that the reason I have done this is to prevent off-topic diversions into Egyptology that serve only to distract from the actual issue we are discussing.

Other than in that quoted note - which was merely to explain what I am doing - I have not (in this thread) claimed that Moses did not exist. Therefore, even if you were to prove that he existed it would not damage any of the arguments I have made in this thread.

Therefore, I am going to completely ignore your stuff about David Rohl's theories as being completely off topic.

Although one thing that I will say, for the benefit of the lurkers, is that I own Rohl's books; and when I first arrived at IIDB I naively believed that Rohl's "New Chronology" was correct - indeed, some of my earliest posts and threads were about his work. I have long since changed my mind about that.

I will also point out that Dave's claim that "if Rohl is correct then the Bible is real history" is a gross misrepresentation of Rohl's work. If Rohl is correct then the Genesis accounts are re-worked Sumerian king-lists, the Eden story is based on old tribal movements around Iraq and Turkey, the Flood story was about a localised inundation of the Euphrates flood plain, and the Tower of Babel story was about religious schisms at the Inanna temple in Uruk. In other words, if Rohl is correct then the Tablet Theory is bunk; and Young Earth Creationism is bunk. On the other hand, if Rohl is correct then the DH is still valid...

Quote:
ANSWERING SOME OBJECTIONS FROM DEAN
From the balance of Dean's "Against Mosaic Authorship" post ... http://www.iidb.org/vbb/showthread.p...05#post4823205

EVIDENCE OF MULTIPLE AUTHORS
Dean says that "the Torah is written in a variety of styles and in language of a variety of ages." He goes on to say that "the remaining 80% was written by Moses. This 80%, naturally, contains all the differences in textual style and age that indicate multiple authorship."
No I didn't. I said that according to the Tablet Theory the remaining 80% was written by Moses.

Quote:
The Tablet Theory explains the varying styles in Genesis quite coherently. As for the various styles supposedly contained in the "remaining 80%" ... you have not given me any examples of this. Could you please supply some examples?
Since you can apparently recognise the varying styles in the first half of Genesis, I fail to see why you are unable to recognise a continuation of those same styles through the rest of the Torah.

Or is it that you are unable to recognise the varying styles in Genesis either, but merely accept that they are there because that is compatible with the Tablet Theory?

Quote:
LACK OF ANY AUTHORIAL CLAIM
Dave apparently agrees with me that there is no authorial claim, since he failed to provide any.

Quote:
ANACHRONISMS
Please give an example of this.
Spin has already given examples of these - examples that by Wiseman's own argument indicate the Torah to have been written long after the time of Moses.

Quote:
MOSES' DEATH
Quote:
In fact, the style of the writing about Moses's death is such a good match for the style of the previous writing that it also makes the other common apologetic for this - that Moses wrote the majority of the Torah and then Joshua added a postscript about Moses's death - also improbable.
Why? Please elaborate. Can you show that the Account of Moses' Death is very dissimilar in style compared to the style of the Book of Joshua? This might help your case.
You don't appear to have read what I said.

The issue is not that the end of Deuteronomy is different from the start of Joshua. The issue is that the end of Deuteronomy is similar to the rest of Deuteronomy.

It is, in fact, similar in style to (parts of) the Book of Joshua (other parts of the Book of Joshua are similar to 'J', by the way), and they were almost certainly written by the same author. But that author was the same author who wrote most of Deuteronomy.

Quote:
COLOPHONS NOT SIMILAR
This is a mystery to me. How is this ... (thank you Cege) ... not similar to this ... ??I didn't say they were identical. I said they were similar. And they are. Both contain the name of the author, even mentioning who the author was the son of.
As anyone can plainly see from the colophons that have been reproduced in this thread, they contain most (if not all of) of:

1) Information about the document itself.
2) Information about the author.
3) Information about the scribe.
4) The date of the document.

Toledoths, on the other hand, contain only:

1) The name of a person.

That Colophons are set apart from the text, and that toledoths fit perfectly into the text that follows them, is another huge indication that they are not the same thing.

Quote:
THE GREAT AGE OF GENESIS SOURCES
Dean added ...
Quote:
Not just that, but look at the logic of the statement.

Wiseman is claiming here:

1) The text uses Babylonian words.
2) These words couldn't have entered the Hebrew language during the Exile.
3) Therefore the words must have already been in the language.
4) Therefore the text must be pre-exilic.

Disregarding the lack of evidence for number 2 for the moment, the conclusion is simply a non-sequitur.

If the Babylonian words were already in the Hebrew language before the Exile, then they would still have been in the language during and after the exile. Therefore the text could be pre-exilic, exilic, or post-exilic.

Number 4 simply does not follow from number 3, regardless of whether number 2 is correct or not.

A "Wise man" indeed...
Jack, I challenge you to present some evidence for your assertion about Genesis containing reworks of the Sumerian and Babylonian myths. Better yet, give your evidence to Dean and let him present it if he feels it's worthy.
He doesn't need to. I am quite aware of the facts, and the evidence for them.

However, they are rather off-topic for this thread. The DH is not affected by whether the Genesis stories are re-worked from the Sumerians/Babylonians or whether they are original to the Hebrews. Similarly, the Tablet Theory is not affected by whether Adam wrote about events that actually happened to him or whether he re-wrote stories from the Sumerians/Babylonians and put himself in those stories as the central character (although the latter scenario does appeal to my sense of humour).

Quote:
Secondly, Dean, if the Babylonian words entered the text during the captivity, why didn't Babylonian words enter the ENTIRE text?
I have never said that the Babylonian words entered the text during the captivity. You are arguing against a straw-man here.

Quote:
The Babylonian words only appear in the earlier parts of Genesis but not in later parts of the Torah, which supports the view that the parts with Babylonian words date back to the time of Abraham (remember Abraham came from Ur, fairly close to Babylon) and before.
Are you really trying to argue that the early parts of Genesis (which you ascribe to God, Adam and Noah) use Babylonian words because Abraham (who did not even write a tablet, according to you) came from near Babylon?

Quote:
Thirdly, there is no non-sequitur. I am not saying that the Babylonian words were in the Hebrew language. You misunderstand. I am saying that the Babylonian words were in common use by the original authors of the Genesis source material, not by the early Hebrews who Moses led out of Egypt.
Are you saying that Moses would have copied the earlier tablets, yet left foreign words in that his people did not understand?

This contradicts your (and Wiseman's) earlier statement that Moses would have updated the text for his audience.

Quote:
Now do you understand Wiseman's argument?
Yes. And that is why I don't believe a word of it.
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Old 10-03-2007, 05:13 AM   #565
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Just out of curiosity (OK I admit it I was bored out of my skull ) I decided to do a quick check on one of the two people that Dave quoted from the original bit of McDowell's work against the DH.

HERMANN SCHULTZ , this gentleman while he was wrong about the existence of writing at the time he states , was in fact a leading Protestant Theologian,indeed a Professor at both Basel & Gottingen universities ,so hardly in my opinon some sort of closet atheist wishing to deny the existence of God by denigrating the Pentateuch.

http://www.1911encyclopedia.org/Hermann_Schultz

As I like word games I also noticed something else last night

IF you take the words C O L O PH O N and T O L E D O TH and change
the C for the T ,the O for the O , the O for the E etc. (classing PH and TH as one letter) ,they are the SAME word .
I am surprised Wiseman or Dave didn't spot that earlier as absolute PROOF they are the same thing

(I do sincerely hope you all realise that the last bit was intended to be sarcastic )

By the way Donald J Wiseman can be contacted by e-mail in fact, so no need to start looking in phone books for Australia .
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Old 10-03-2007, 05:32 AM   #566
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Originally Posted by Lucretius View Post
IF you take the words C O L O PH O N and T O L E D O TH and change
the C for the T ,the O for the O , the O for the E etc. (classing PH and TH as one letter) ,they are the SAME word .
I am surprised Wiseman or Dave didn't spot that earlier as absolute PROOF they are the same thing

(I do sincerely hope you all realise that the last bit was intended to be sarcastic )
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Old 10-03-2007, 05:59 AM   #567
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A little advice for Dave: Before responding to anything Dean says, ask yourself these questions:

1) Am I really responding to a main point that Dean is making? Or is this something I just happen to have talking points for?
2) Am I about to contradict something I said in an earlier post? Or in an earlier sentence in this post? Or in an earlier clause of this sentence?
3) If called upon by Dean to support the point I'm making with factual and relevant evidence, am I able to do so? Or would I have to respond with something merely assertive and/or non-topical to the specific point?
4) Do I really believe this myself? Or is it just a workable response?
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Old 10-03-2007, 06:22 AM   #568
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Originally Posted by Lucretius View Post

By the way Donald J Wiseman can be contacted by e-mail in fact, so no need to start looking in phone books for Australia .
But since you didn't actually post the e-mail address, Dave would say that you haven't given any evidence of Donald J Wiseman...

regards,

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Old 10-03-2007, 06:27 AM   #569
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Quote:
Originally Posted by NinJay View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Lucretius View Post

By the way Donald J Wiseman can be contacted by e-mail in fact, so no need to start looking in phone books for Australia .
But since you didn't actually post the e-mail address, Dave would say that you haven't given any evidence of Donald J Wiseman...

regards,

NinJay
I know
Very naughty of me not to post it here
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Old 10-03-2007, 06:31 AM   #570
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Originally Posted by oatmealia View Post
<...large snip...>
I just wanted to second (third?) this. The DH absolutely appears to be the more credible option per the evidence presented here.

oatmealia -

I (and I'm sure other interested parties) appreciate your candor in telling us about your background.

Re: The DH - when I first read Richard Friedman's books, I was struck by how the DH, as presented in them, just clicked. He didn't force the points, he just presented them, and it fell together pretty much on it's own. One of the review snippets on the back of the copy of Who Wrote The Bible (or via: amazon.co.uk) that's sitting on the desk next to me says "It has about it the resounding smack of solid truth" (Harvard Magazine). In my opinion it really does, whereas the Tablet Theory as presented here by dave seems like nothing so much as a collection of "it could have been" ideas growing from a predetermined conclusion.

regards,

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