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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
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Originally Posted by spin
As I was one of those heavily engaged with Earl's efforts here, it would seem that he thinks I am a HJ defender, though forum members would know him to be wrong on that count as well. What Paul believes about Jesus is in no sense translatable to history.
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So you are a ‘Wellsian’?
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Stop wasting your time trying to categorize me. You're just trying to find some way to score off-topic points after your previous failures.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
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Originally Posted by spin
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
The idea of a debate, after you have stated your position, is to rebut the opponent's position. And you can further enlarge on your own in light of that; it helps hone your own presentation in the direction of discrediting the opponent’s. Just labelling them “speculations and flights of fancies” does not constitute a counter-argument. Neither does calling my explanations “pretzels”. In my debates with spin, I take apart his position and arguments,...
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By playing with versions, redefining words, shifting meanings, dividing text for your convenience, selective blindness and various other unhelpful tricks until you end up with nothing tangible to say.
What form was Jesus before he was resurrected? Your basic answer was some "inferior form", but certainly not a physical body.
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I invite you to read over the first part of your quote of me above.
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I was responding to the empty claim at the end of your comment.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
And what does your final remark above (complete with derisive laughter smilie) think to accomplish? If I present a Jesus descending to a lower heaven and assuming some spiritual-equivalent ‘likeness’ of “flesh”, followed by resurrecting into a higher heaven in a pure spiritual form, then yes, my basic answer is an “inferior form” to his previous natural state.
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You still haven't answered the question. If christ is not a physical body and not a spiritual body. This “inferior form” is not from Paul: it's your insinuation. A physical body is an “inferior form” and is the only alternative that Paul supplies in 1 Cor 15. So, what form is he??
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
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Originally Posted by spin
No, Earl. As you take pride in being precise, "of the dust of the earth" is a poetic rendition of εκ γης χοικος. (There's no verb equivalent for "made".)
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Hmmm…no, you’re not Tim O’Neill, spin. Actually, you’re Jeffrey Gibson!! (Now I’ve got it!)
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:notworthy: I must admit despite the tiresomeness of this stuff you're persistent.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
This is the sort of stock-in-trade response of the good Dr. Gibson. Seize on some technicality that is utterly irrelevant and throw that in my face when you have nothing else. (Gibson’s favorite was to jump up and down when I wrongly remembered the first name of some obscure scholar.)
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The thing is with Gibson though is that he could see that you're out of your "element" when you try to deal with the Greek.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
But actually, you’re wrong anyway (except for the ‘k’ instead of my ‘ch’ mental typo). “Dust of the earth” can be entirely derived from the single word “xoïkos, which means (according to Bauer, not just me) “made of earth or dust; earthy.” Pairing this word with “ek gēs” is technically a redundancy, though we could style it a poetic one.
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If you spent a little time to think about it, your error comes from the fact that you are confusing the significance of an English word "earth". Amongst its meanings are 1. land in general/our world and 2. the material underfoot in the natural environment. When Bauer gives you “made of earth or dust”, he's signaling that "earth" and "dust" are functionally synonymous here, indicating #2. Look at what Bauer says for γη ("earth") and you'll quietly let this disappear.
As is I've already supplied a rough translation of v.47, indicating that χοιλος is not part of the same phrase as εκ γη, shown by the change of case.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
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Originally Posted by spin
If Jesus was always a spiritual body, then Paul excludes the possibility of Jesus's dying in that form. This is where you bring in your infamous kludge of christ's taking "on something in human flesh’s “likeness”". Paul tells us that before the spiritual body one has a physical body, but for Jesus you arbitrarily want it to be "something in human flesh’s “likeness”". He stops being a spiritual body (otherwise he couldn't die), takes on "something in human flesh’s “likeness”" (so that he can "die" in some non-human manner), and is raised as a spiritual body once again. Pretty incoherent, Earl.
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It’s not incoherent at all. Actually, you’ve managed to provide a pretty straightforward précis of it (except for terms like “kludge” and “arbitrarily”). I spend reams of material in JNGNM presenting context within the philosophy and cosmology of the period, as well as analysis of NT texts, into which my interpretation fits like a glove. You would do better to read my book and directly address (and rebut, if you so wish or can) that presentation, rather than just throw insults at it. (If you are Jeffrey Gibson, you already have a copy!)
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You've already hung yourself with your own words here. You've insinuated a process into Paul that he doesn't talk about.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
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Originally Posted by spin
When Paul talked of christ as the first fruits, he is alluding to an image he will take up later, one of "seed" and "sown". Christ is first fruits of what is sown and raised.
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Wow, “alluding to an image” (where it is anything but spelled out) is expected to be understood in the proper way three paragraphs later, when a few simple words in that later passage where they are allegedly so integral, would have prevented all this strained analysis?
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It's not Paul's fault that you may have a short attention span.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
When Paul in 15:35 gets to the question of what is sown and raised, is he “alluding” to Christ here? I’m repeating from an earlier posting (my fate, apparently),...
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(Do you wonder why people suffer from repetitive stress when dealing with you?)
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
...but is “how are the dead raised?” supposed to include Christ? Are the Corinthians asking about him?
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The question is general. It does not exclude christ. That is only your insinuation.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
If they were, then this is a direct question which would need a direct answer right there, not an unvoiced assumption that they will remember as “alluded to” ten verses earlier. Nothing in 35-44a is descriptive of Christ.
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Paul is speaking to the general question.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
He is setting up the question of what progression the human resurrected dead will undergo.
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You may be right, but, if christ is human, as Paul indicates a number of times in his work, the comments apply to him.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
Do you think if Christ were to be included, Paul would not devote one single word to the specific example of Christ in his argument?
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He has done so from 15:12 onward. Short attention span.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
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Originally Posted by spin
Paul explains the process a person goes through: a person is sown a physical body and is raised a spiritual body (44a). Simple. Jesus, the first fruits of resurrection (20), like all seed, was clearly sown a physical body and he was the first, and so far only, one raised a spiritual body.
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And so I ask you again. You are going to declare that Paul is including Christ in his present argument (35-49) by assuming an understood insertion of a verse that appeared over a dozen verses earlier which itself made no clear identification of Christ with a human being?
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Not just
a verse. He talked extensively about the resurrection of Jesus. I don't understand why you want to ignore that... well, I do really. You want to forget it because it doesn't suit your argument.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
You don’t think that’s a little risky on Paul’s part—and yours? Especially when it is anything but a good fit within this later context? An assumption of rising from a physical body to a spiritual when he defines Christ only in terms of the spiritual (v. 45)? When he speaks of the “spiritual” Christ as coming second after Adam, the “physical” man (v.46)? When he declares Christ the “man” made of heavenly stuff (v.47) and never makes mention of Christ’s earthly stuff? When he maintains that the human dead will wear the likeness of the heavenly man (v.49), but never gives us an inkling that they have worn the likeness of Christ when he was an earthly man?
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If christ were the first physical body then they would have born his likeness, but that is not the case and your comment is irrelevant to Paul.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
There’s nothing “simple” about such a procedure.
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Paul has made it simple. You're sown a physical body and you're raised a spiritual body. That's simple. Christ the man, born of a woman, the same stuff as other humans, died like other humans, fits easily into Paul's simple notion, sown a physical body and raised a spiritual body.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
You are putting all your eggs in one very uncertain basket, it seems, the use of the term “firstfruits” all the way back at verse 20.
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And 23, so that you don't miss the importance of the notion, Paul repeats it for you.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
And what in this term guarantees the meaning of “firstfruits” as a rising from a physical to a spiritual body?
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Who are the second fruits? The rest of humanity.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
Does Paul make a point of saying this so that the Corinthians will take heart from it? He no more says it here than he says it in 35-49. Are there now such things as “common allusions” which have to be understood everywhere—even where they do not appear? You are reading it into the text in verse 20-21 and then want us to understand the same ‘reading into’ in the later passage, where not even an “allusion” can find room.
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Seeds, sown and first fruits are all within the one semantic field, Earl. The first fruits are raised from the same field as all the other corpses (νεκροι). Paul goes on to explain how the νεκροι are raised. This is not rocket science.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
Just because that sort of rising will be the case for humans, does it require the same to have been the case for Christ? If Christ was resurrected in the heavenly world, could not that resurrection be regarded as a “firstfruits”, the first resurrection guaranteeing that of humans?
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What exactly does death entail in this "heavenly world" for the term to make sense?
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
There is no reason why not, given the ‘paradigmatic parallel’ motif I have illustrated throughout the literature of the time. Nor is there any reason for the term to have to mean that Christ’s resurrection had to be recent. The only thing Paul ever speaks of as ‘recent’ was the revelation of Christ and his salvific acts, enabling a preaching by such as Paul which could spread a faith which itself confers the opportunity for resurrection.
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Salvific acts initiated before his death by crucifixion, sinless under the law.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
I can hear the whirr of circularity here. You use “firstfruits” in 15:20 as something into which you have read a physical to spiritual rising for Christ, in order to insert an implication of the same in 35-49.
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First fruits raised from the νεκροι relates the raising of christ to the raising of everyone else. The circularity is of your own imagination.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
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Originally Posted by spin
To be a suitable sacrifice for all who have sinned, he was born of a woman and born under the law...
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I have never hesitated to acknowledge that when taken at face value, those Galatians 4 phrases are the most problematic for the mythicist case—perhaps really the only problematic ones.
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That's because you find your subterfuge regarding κατα σαρκα self-convincing, when it should be plain to a philologist that you are making a special plea without cause. First fruits of the νεκροι also makes your house of cards tumble, as does the fact that Paul indicates that christ is a man in the common sense of the term.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
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Originally Posted by spin
…He knew no sin and to say this Paul is either saying that christ didn't have an opportunity to sin (which would defeat the purpose, for a sacrifice has to be shown to be worthy) or he lived to have the opportunity to be tested by the law. I think we all go for the latter. Jesus had to live to meaningfully know no sin under the law.
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And here again you have ignored, let alone failed to rebut, my position here. Christ had an opportunity to sin in that he could have refused God’s requirement to undergo suffering and sacrifice. But that refusal, and the actual acceptance, could have taken place in the heavenly world.
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Given your will to insinuate things into Paul anything could have taken place. However, Paul doesn't say it, nor does he imply it. It is a mere deflection.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
You have offered no argument which would deny that (except your “common understanding” appeal).
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I haven't offered an argument to deny Jesus was Nepalese. When you show the relevance of your hypothesis to Paul, then you can talk about counterarguments.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
As well, I have pointed out that in every discussion in the epistles about Jesus’ sinlessness, the context, when one is presented, solely relates to his willingness to suffer and die.
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And I haven't implied how Jesus could be considered sinless. It's just you limiting it to "his willingness to suffer and die." Paul's pre-suffering christ isn't particularly developed as you have noticed, but then neither is his post-suffering christ. This suggests that Paul hasn't developed much of a notion either way.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
And outside of the phrase in Gal. 4, there isn’t the slightest attention given to Jesus living under, or being sinless in relation to, the Law.
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And this is an argument for something? the fact that Paul hasn't repeated an idea?
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
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Originally Posted by spin
If my analysis is right, then the physical Adam was followed by the spiritual Christ. Verse 46 doesn't exclude a physical Christ intervening.
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You need at least to attempt a demonstration that verse 46 could do such a thing.
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I already have.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
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Originally Posted by spin
Excluding the gospels obviously, for they clearly show that he was a physical body.
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Yes, excluding the gospels obviously. The whole mythicist exercise is based on preventing the Gospels from simply being read into the epistles, and ignoring what we should be deducing from the epistles themselves. I’m sure I can rely on you understanding that principle (though it seems to be beyond others).
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You misunderstand. You were being kitchen sink when it wasn't appropriate. If you wanted to impress with coverage you need to cover all, rather than omit one of the major sources outside Paul. In this discussion I'm not interested in what you can bring in from outside Paul's corpus unless it helps to resolve philological issues.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
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Originally Posted by spin
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
And no, it is not obvious that if “the last Adam was made a quickening spirit”, this means there was a transformation of him, just as there was for Adam. You see, if you had actually attempted to understand and rebut my reading of verse 45, you would probably not have made this mistake, since I spelled things out quite clearly. What was Adam “transformed” from in being “made” a living being? What was he before God created him? This makes no sense.
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I'm sorry Earl, your statement here makes no sense. You are trying to compare the inception of two states and require them to have analogous starting conditions. You have no basis for such a claim.
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To which can be added:
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Originally Posted by spin
It is a normal feature of many languages to be able to omit a repeated verb.
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The practice of omitting a repeated verb is only legitimate if we assume the same thing is meant as where the verb does appear. Right there, you involve yourself in a contradiction, for if the two topics, the two “inceptions” in this case, do not have analogous starting conditions—namely, no previous state of existence as in the case of Adam—then the same thing is not meant.
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It's hilarious how far you are willing to make εγενετο a specific verb. γινομαι has a vague notion of "becoming". Putting it into a context will shape its connotations. Reinserting it in 45b will put it into a context where it will have different connotations. There is nothing strange here. Language use isn't Cartesian.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
And, in the sort of question I repeatedly ask, if Paul wanted to be meaning that Christ was the first to be a spiritual body, why the hell didn’t he just say so and make it clear?
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He did, 1. when he called Jesus the last Adam, 2. when he said that resurrection came through one man (v.21), and 3. when he called christ the first fruits of the dead.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
you are misconceiving my contention about the two parts of verse 45. The point is, it is clear from verse 44b that Paul is intending to create a direct parallel between Adam and Christ in verse 45, in order to illustrate the categories of 44b and supply specific examples of them. Whatever he means in 45a must apply in 45b.
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I don't think there is any contention here.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
The former states that Adam “came into existence as” a physical body. If he has in mind, even without stating it but knowing that his readers have it in mind as well, that Christ did not “come into existence” as a spiritual body now in heaven, but ‘became’ a spiritual body following a physical life on earth, then he is creating no parallel at all, but a comparison involving a serious discrepancy and one liable to produce confusion.
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Removing all your convolutions, Paul's parallel is first body, physical and spiritual. The rest is your futile effort to cloud the issue...
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
It would be like you yourself have done in suggesting that he is saying that Adam was the first to become a physical body, Christ the first to become a spiritual one (illustrating, by the way, your own instinct to try to present some kind of consistent parallel between Adam and Christ). That suggestion doesn’t work for the reasons I pointed out, that Christ is not “the first to be a spiritual body” since there have been other spiritual bodies long before Christ was resurrected. Had you realized that anomaly, I think you would not have made such a suggestion, since it renders the parallel flawed. Let’s allow the same thing to Paul.
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Artificial separations, misunderstanding verb usage, taking parallels to absurd lengths, this is you clouding the issue.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
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Originally Posted by spin
Actually, v.45 doesn't talk about any progress, for Paul focuses on each of the bodies.
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Hallelujah!
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Would you a camomile tea?
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
You have actually retreated from your stance on these verses (presumably due to my hammering away at what it actually says).
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Oh, utter rubbish, Earl! Context is what is important and your titanic efforts to compartmentalize text to isolate it have hit an iceberg.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
You now admit that there is no progression element in verse 45 (rather contradictory with your above contention about the feasibility of a different starting condition for Christ which does envision a progression).
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As I have always said, 45 is dependent on 44 and that's where the progress is enunciated. Paul is developing upon 44.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
This means there is no progression in 44b, since 45 is an elucidation of it (specific examples of two categories).
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Iceberg.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
Thus both verses are separated from what progression meaning there is in 44a (which in any case is being applied only to humans and not Christ), demonstrating that seeing a change of subject at 44b (and a new paragraph, as in some translations) is justified.
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Sunk.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
But without any progression element in the surrounding verses (before and after),...
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Such as 42-44a. That seems to be before, Earl. I don't understand your blind spot here. The text is clear. One is sown a physical body and raised a spiritual body. The first to be a physical body was Adam. The first to be a spiritual body was christ. You have gone through enormous contortions failing to get around the obvious.
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
...you lose any real justification for assuming that there is even a dormant conception of a different starting condition (from a physical life on earth) in the background, one that is not being applied. For where do you get that ‘dormant conception’ from? If it’s not in the context, then you are arbitrarily importing it.
In regard to that, let’s look at what you said following that last sentence of yours I quoted above:
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Originally Posted by spin
Actually, v.45 doesn't talk about any progress, for Paul focuses on each of the bodies. It doesn't stop the weight of the argument he has presented about being sown a physical body and raised a spiritual body. He simply tells us that the first to have a physical body was Adam and the first to have a spiritual body was christ. You cannot simply forget the rest of his sown/raised discussion because he hasn't included it yet again in this verse.
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But that “weight of the argument about being sown a physical body and raised a spiritual body” (39-44a) relates entirely to what happens and will happen to human beings (and seeds). I can’t seem, try as I might, to make you see that nothing in there is applied to Christ. In those verses you do not have any “weight of argument” that can be used, without taking an argument used in one context and claiming it applies in a different context when not even an implication that this is being done is identifiable. The business of dying and rising for humans and seeds is self-sufficient. It ends at 44a. From then on, Paul is solely addressing the question of what are the specific cases of physical and spiritual bodies which are representative of that human progression, what they do and will correspond to. There is no discussion in either 35-44a or 44b-49...
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This is wonderful, Earl: 35-44a or 44b-49. How arbitrary do you have to be to ignore context? This is exciting!
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
...of the resurrection of Christ. That leaves only one source for you seeing such a thing anywhere in the passage. Importation.
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