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Old 01-02-2011, 04:26 PM   #11
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Originally Posted by JoeWallack View Post
JW:
Well I have JP Holding on my side:

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Moreover, the brevity and choppiness are better explained by seeing Mark's Gospel as Papias did - as a record of the preaching of Peter. [Reic.Root, 46, 57]. Also, Mark's brevity can be considered a device of rhetorical style -- Mark was an Hellenistic Jew, and demonstrates a close affinity to Greek tragedy style in the gospel.


Joseph

DRAMATIST, n.
One who adapts plays from the French.

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Richard Burridge (What Are The Gospels?: A Comparison With Graeco-roman Biography (or via: amazon.co.uk))also seems to be on your side.

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. . The same applies to suggestions that the gospels are tragedy or tragicomedy. Again, there may be elements of the tragic or tragicomic in the gospels, but these genres are smaller than our texts—as well as possessing other generic features, such as mode of dialogue and structure or scenes and choruses not in the gospels. .
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Old 01-02-2011, 06:37 PM   #12
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Originally Posted by ApostateAbe View Post
In a debate about how to make the best sense of Mark, it was suggested that I read the thread, Wrestling With Greco Tragedy. Reversal From Behind. Is "Mark" Greek Tragedy? by JoeWallack. In it, he lists the many ways that the gospel of Mark meets the definition of a Greek tragedy (the Wikipedia definition, anyway).

I believe there are many problems with JoeWallack's analysis. For one thing, in any tragedy, you know exactly who the protagonist (the tragic hero) is, and the entire play follows that character. JoeWallack has two protagonists--Jesus and Peter. JoeWallack thinks Mark intended Peter as the tragic hero, or else some of the criteria do not fit. But that would be highly implausible, as the entire narrative focuses on Jesus. Jesus is in every scene, but not Peter. Moreover, if Peter is the tragic hero, then even fewer of the criteria fit the story. If you have two tragic heroes, then it would be the first of any tragedy. The scholars who speculate the theory that Mark was a tragedy hold that Jesus would be the tragic hero, so that will be my presumption.
JW:
Abe, you've been here long enough to know that in detailed analysis you should identify your sources. My main objective in the offending Thread is to use a Markan two-step approach to teaching. "Mark's" steps:

1) Identify the who = "Mark's" Jesus is the Christ/son of god

2) Interpret what that means = The Christ must be Passionated.

My steps:

1) Identify the what = "Mark" is Greek Tragedy

2) Interpret what that means = The Jesus' Mission at the Text level is a Failure

I'll deal first with your objection that Tragedy should/must have one protagonist who clearly meets all the classical definitions of a Greek Tragedy (GT).

Bilezikian (B) points out that generally Poetics (P) is the primary authority for the definition of Greek Tragedy (GT). B notes that Aristotle (A) never states that a quality of GT is that there is one protagonist who is the primary character. B's few examples though do show this. B thus concludes that the issue is disputed. B writes:

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The question as to whether Aristotle intended character to be exhibited by one central figure or whether he intended it to derive from the agon, the action borne out of crisis, constitutes one of the continuing controversies in classical criticism.
A wrote c. 350 BCE and describes the gradual development of GT from one character, to two and than three. B notes the expansion and variety of GT to "Mark's" time. Thus by "Mark's" time there is variation from what would have been considered classical GT by A. A and B both also describe character as secondary to plot. The standard objection to "Mark" being GT is that the hero Jesus is not a failure. The objections to this objection are:

1) Stating that "Mark" is a specific genre is a subjective assertion. What is objective is noting the strength of parallels between "Mark" and genres. If the best parallels are to GT, than even though "Mark" does not have all elements of classical GT, asserting that "Mark" is GT is a fair statement. The weight of the conclusion is proportional to the strength of the parallels.

2) A and B agree that character is subservient to plot in GT.

3) GT may have expanded to the point in "Mark's" time where the hero did not have to be a failure.

4) In GT the divine characters are typically part of the setting that the human characters are subject to. "Mark's" Christ is divine and the dominant part of the Jesus Christ character so it would be natural for the usual character qualities of the hero in GT to fall on Peter since after Jesus the story is mainly about him and a primary element of GT is identifying with the hero and "Mark" is constructed for us to identify with Peter and not Jesus.

5) 1-4) are unnecessary defenses here anyway as "Mark's" Jesus, as I have already explained in this Thread, is clearly a Failure. His primary Mission is to have the Disciples promote his resurrection. The text explicitly shows that this did not happen. This is not merely the best explanation for "Mark", it is the only explanation. There is no support in the text of "Mark" for the disciples promoting Jesus' resurrection (no support at the Text level. Sub-text is another story).

Jesus' failure here does not have to be the result of any fault on his part. He was simply unable to persuade "Mark's" disciples to promote a Passionated Christ. The standard objection at this point is that even if Jesus was a failure, in GT the hero has a tragic fault. But now you are conflating requirements to try and defend the hero failure requirement.


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