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Old 05-06-2009, 05:30 AM   #51
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Originally Posted by spin View Post

Gen 45:10 LXX says clearly Gesem Arabias, ie the Greek translator understood an Arabian location rather than some place in Egypt.
Don't you think it's possible the greek translator, writing so many centuries later, might have been the one who was confused?
The context seems to indicate Egypt. You want this to be Arabia, but it seems to be Egypt as far as I can see.
The Joshua info indicates a place south of Judah, what we would call Arabia today (the term "Arabia" had a greater range in ancient times). The Greek translator understood what the writer of Joshua did for Goshen.

Would you want to advocate two Goshens in the same basic area? Isn't it easier to see the writers getting their facts confused?


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8 "So then, it was not you who sent me here, but God. He made me father to Pharaoh, lord of his entire household and ruler of all Egypt. 9 Now hurry back to my father and say to him, 'This is what your son Joseph says: God has made me lord of all Egypt. Come down to me; don't delay. 10 You shall live in the region of Goshen and be near me—you, your children and grandchildren, your flocks and herds, and all you have.
I don't really agree with David Rohls ideas (I have not even investigated them) but I think, from looking at the context, it is difficult to make this location outside Egypt.
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Old 05-06-2009, 05:32 AM   #52
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Regarding Gesem Arabias, at the time the LXX was being written (in the Ptolemaic period), the 21st nome of Lower Egypt was called the Arabian Nome, the capital of which was Phakusa - modern Fakus (ancient Pa Kus), just a few kilometres south of Tell ed-Daba (Avaris). Silvia (AD 385) refers to this town, known as 'the City of Arabia', whist on her journey north from Heroopolis in the Wadi Tumilat to Pelusium on the Mediterranean coast. She was therefore passing through the eastern Nile delta region where Fakus and Tell ed-Daba are located. This is therefore The Goshen (LXX 'Kessan' or 'Gesem') of the OT narratives.

Wow, spin wants to put Goshen/Gesem in Arabia. Unfortunately for him another massive brain fart.
Let's just turn a blind eye to Joshua. Your arguments are too often ignoring what you don't like. It doesn't go away.


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Old 05-06-2009, 05:44 AM   #53
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I think I can cast some doubts over the efficacy of Radiocarbon, since I've done a lot of thinking on the subject.
The famous Arnold and Libby paper of 1949 is available online. Would you mind commenting on it as pertains to the New Chronology dates? Some of the ± variances are pretty wide (3700±400, for example, for the Sesostris boat), others less so. When Andrew Criddle asks about the Rohl dates falling outside the usual range of C14 dates, how many dates from the New Chronology are we talking about? Is it only a handful, or is there a broader trend?

Thank you.

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Old 05-06-2009, 06:32 AM   #54
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Regarding C14 and its dendro calibration, Duke Leto has done most of the spade work for us. Thank you. As a non-scientist, I can only express my concerns by observing that any reliance on this methodology for dating archaeology prior to 500 BC ends up with some pretty silly results. So, I think that its usefulness for determining which chronology is correct is questionable.

The calibrated C14 dates may coincidentally coincide at the Amarna period (and only then) in the Orthodox Chronology, but no Egyptologist would accept having to add 100-150 years to the length of the 18th Dynasty (on any chronology) in order to line up the Thera event with the first appearance of Theran pumice in Egypt and elsewhere (whether you go for early 18th Dynasty or Thutmose III period as with Bietak). Manning is way out on a limb here and no Egyptologist (nor the vast majority of Aegean archaeologists), to my knowledge, goes along with him.

Then we have the problem that, as we go back in time (again using the conventional dating for Egypt), the gap gets wider, with C14 dates for the 12th Dynasty being a couple of hundred years older than the OC historical dates. As we reach the Old Kingdom and the pyramid age the gap is around 400 years.

Then we have the cute little problem of Utzi (Ice Man) found in the Italian Alps. C14 dating puts him in the Neolithic Age but unfortunately he is carrying a copper axe from the Chalcolithic period. Oooops!

And all this within the orthodox dating system. Interestingly enough, the raw (uncalibrated) C14 dates are pretty close to the New Chronology dates. Just an observation.
JW:
Chink. This reminds me of the carbon dating of The Shroud. The Shroud was already determined to be 14th century based on the available evidence and carbon dating confirmed this date. The standard control before the three independent and prestigious laboratories dated The Shroud was for them to date the same 3 relics, one of which was ancient Egyptian, all with well known dates. All labs dated the relics within the normal acceptable ranges.

We've seen how much consensus there is between Rohl and Kitchen. Note how Rohl also claims uncertainty when the evidence appears to go against him such as "s" to "sh" (shhheee) and tendency to use shortened version of names from the other language not to mention dealing with a language that has not been used and the related culture ignored by its natives for 2,000 years.

Presenting one supposed counter-example (with exponentially older dates) does not negate or even seriously question the evidential value of carbon dating. The fact is carbon dating is objective evidence and Egyptologist dating of ancient Egypt is subjective. So instead of minimizing the carbon dating evidence which goes against his theory Rohl should acknowledge that it is not only evidence against but weighty evidence against.



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Old 05-06-2009, 06:59 AM   #55
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Spent an hour last night with a couple of biblical Hebrew dictionaries and concordances. Not difficult to find several examples to contradict what spin has said and Ted Hoffman has swallowed.

From the Jewish Enyclopedia: The distinction in sound between "sin" and "samek" is not clear.
Not clear to modern scholars. They can't really comment on ancient language users. They can't ask any.

We can only really talk about the written evidence. Please stick to that -- it's safer.

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Originally Posted by David Rohl View Post
"Shin" interchanges with "sin," and both these (in corresponding Aramaic and Arabic words) with dentals and spirants.

Arabic has no glyph for samek and replaces it with sin.

Prior to the Late Period in Egypt the Egyptian letters T or Tj is represented by Hebrew samek – thus Egyptian Pa Tjufy (‘the reeds’) becomes biblical Yam Suf (‘sea of reeds’) with samek replacing Tj. Hoffmeier states that Egyptian S does ‘normally’ get represented by Hebrew samek – but not ‘always’. Indeed, not unsurprisingly, samek and sin could be confused as they sound almost identical. Here are some examples of Egyptian S represented in Hebrew by sin and NOT samek just to demonstrate the point that no such linguistic rule applies.

Old Egy. sar (prince), Akk. sharru (ruler); Heb. sar (prince)
Old Egy. seref (to be warm); Heb. saraph (to burn);
Egy. sek (headband); Heb. sak (sack)
Egy. sepet (lip); Akk. shaptu (lip); Heb. sapham (lip)

[Note: the use of the letter E in the modern transcription of ancient Egyptian is a standard way to substitute for presumed vowels of unknown value because hieroglyphic writing does not include vowels.]
I don't know what you are really trying to prove here. It seems unrelated to your issue that the /s/ from Ramses' hypochoristic name somehow gets transliterated as the letter shin rather than samek.

The above shows at least two examples of Hebrew words which have cognates in Akkadian, three, if we add Akkadian sharapu. You were supposed to be talking about terms borrowed into Hebrew from Egyptian.

Now the possibility that the Egyptian /s/ -> "sin", hence written shin, is a plausible trajectory if it were ever followed, but you don't actually deal with the issue in any meaningful way in the post I'm responding to.

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Originally Posted by David Rohl View Post
In the Hebrew articulation of Strong’s Dictionary it describes samek as 'a sharp S'. It then describes sin as 'a sharp S equal to samek'.
(Umm, Strongs?! Strongs' guess is as good as yours. Don't use it as currency: you'll get arrested for fraud.)

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Originally Posted by David Rohl View Post
Here are examples of Hebrew shin in which the Arabic retains sin because the Arabic script did not develop a sign for shin.

Sheba = Arab. Saba (Arabian country)
Shalom = Arab. Salam (peace)
Shuwk = Arab. Sukh (street)

Even in Hebrew itself there is variation:

Dammesek (Damascus) but Demeshek (cloth of Damascus)
(The etymology of the latter is "disputed". BDB supplies a different trajectory: from the Greek metaxa via Syria mdq$, then metathesized.)

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Originally Posted by David Rohl View Post
Here are a few more examples where Egyptian words written with S are written in Hebrew with Sh (shin):

Egy. ses (six) = Heb. shesh (six)
You must be joking. I don't think we're on the same page here. You are talking about nothing that will help you in borrowings from Egyptian to Hebrew, unless you honestly want to argue that the Hebrew number six comes from Egyptian. Do you??

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Originally Posted by David Rohl View Post
Egy. shes (linen) = Heb. shesh (linen)
You may be right that $$ comes from Egyptian. It's another case that there is insufficient evidence. But if you're claiming that the second /s/ -> $ is evidence for your claim, you forget that the first consonant is a $ in both and the second $ may simply be a phonological assimilation.

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Originally Posted by David Rohl View Post
Egy. sekhekh (to weigh) = Heb. shakal (to weigh)
Akkadian shakalu and shiklu. The Hebrew is a cognate.

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Originally Posted by David Rohl View Post
Egy. sebet (to judge) = Heb. shapat (to judge)
Akkadian shapatu. Cognate.

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Originally Posted by David Rohl View Post
Egy. shemsu (follower) = Heb. shemesh (servant)
Couldn't find this usage of $m$. Could you supply a biblical example?

Barring the possibility of this last case, more useless examples of things that do not show what is needed. We are after an example to make your trajectory of $w$q from Ramses credible, by a /s/ becoming a shin. Once you find an example then we can consider the reason why Hebrew generally uses a samek for /s/ in other words borrowed from Egyptian.

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Originally Posted by David Rohl View Post
And Kitchen says this never happens? Thus Sysw to Shyshk is not isolated when it comes to evidence that Egyptian S can transform to Hebrew Sh.
Still unsupported.

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Originally Posted by David Rohl View Post
When a city in Spain can be founded in the Roman Empire period with the name Ceasar Augustus
(Think of the German Kaiser for the vowel order Caesar.)

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Originally Posted by David Rohl View Post
but, 1000 years later is known as Zaragoza from [Cea]sar-A[u]gustu[s], it is surely pushing it a bit to insist that the difference between three types of S (samek, sin and shin) could be distinguished and maintained without transfer or confusion for 1,500 years or more from the 10th century BC down to Massoretic times and 500 years later to our first surviving manuscript of Kings and Chronicles (Leningrad Codex c. AD 1010) where the name Shishak first appears.
This may be, but here's a fun fact. I've already indicated that the form $w$q, being the more difficult reading, is more likely to be the ancient form of the text. Now the fun part: each time the Hebrew text with either $w$q or $y$q is transliterated, the LXX supplies sousakim. The LXX translators tended to be literal with their transliterations from the Hebrew text and not so much influenced by other works, so sousakim is a fair reflection of the Hebrew $w$q, showing that the waw is more probable than the yod, and another nail in the coffin of your desired trajectory for Shishak. :wave:


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Old 05-06-2009, 08:29 AM   #56
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“Ötzi” the Iceman
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Sophisticated modern measurement techniques have confirmed that Ötzi lived between 3350 and 3100 BC. Stonehenge had not yet been built in England. The pyramids of Giza would not be constructed for a further 600 years. In Europe the Copper Age was dawning. . . .
Copper Age
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The Copper Age in the Middle East and the Caucasus begins in the late 5th millennium BC and lasts for about a millennium before it gives rise to the Early Bronze Age. Transition from the European Copper Age to Bronze Age Europe occurs about a millennium later, between the late 4th and the late 3rd millennia BC.
I don't see the oops here.
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Old 05-06-2009, 09:15 AM   #57
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Duh! If we're playing the quote game:

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Ötzi the Iceman, found in the Ötztal Alps and whose remains dated about 3,300 BC was found with a copper axe, which indicates that copper mining existed in Europe at least 5,300 years ago (500 years earlier than previously believed).

It was the discovery of Ice Man and his copper axe that led to the backward revision of the start date for the Copper Age - based on the C14 date for his remains! You have here a circular argument. You can't use the C14 date for this man to push the Copper Age earlier and then say that the C14 date is consistent with the dates for the Copper Age.
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Old 05-06-2009, 09:39 AM   #58
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You can't use the C14 date for this man to push the Copper Age earlier and then say that the C14 date is consistent with the dates for the Copper Age.
You also can't use the presence of a Copper Age item outside a subscribed date-range as impugning of C14 veracity, when the presence of the item constitutes a prima facie impugning of the subscribed range's veracity. Circular logic is clearly contagious.

Elske.
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Old 05-06-2009, 10:04 AM   #59
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Not a circular argument at all because I am not saying the C14 dating is wrong, only that it is not consistent with historical dates as determined by historians and archaeologists - and therefore not generally trusted by them. It is only circular reasoning if the C14 dating method is demonstrably correct.

The circularity of the original statement by Toto was that Ice Man fell within the Copper Age when it was Ice Man who reset the start of the Copper Age in contradiction of the historically-based dating. He certainly lived in the Copper Age but as to when that was (historical dating using synchronisms or scientific dating) is a matter of whether C14 can be shown to be correct - and that depends on many factors hotly debated for the last twenty years. Certainly no Egyptologist would be prepared to raise the dates of the Old kingdom pyramids by 300 years. In fact the tendency in Egyptology has been to lower dates, not raise them. So C14 dating is going in one direction and historical dating is going in the opposite direction.

Your own circularity is to assume the correctness of C14 dating and then use that assumption to argue that the C14 date for Ice Man is primary evidence for the date of the Copper Age. The C14 dating method, using dendro calibration, is not a proven hypothesis.

The implication of your argument is that anything found out of an historically-dated or scientifically-dated context cannot be used as evidence against the existing interpretation of that context. But that is the whole basis of historical and archaeological reconstruction. If nothing implies anything, then why bother to review anything?
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Old 05-06-2009, 10:20 AM   #60
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The C14 dating method, using dendro calibration, is not a proven hypothesis.
:notworthy:
The C14 dating method does not use dendrochronology. Dendrochronology uses C14.
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