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Old 02-21-2010, 10:52 AM   #351
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In New Testament scholarship, the word "probability" is used all the time, and it is taken for granted that there are no absolute measures of likelihood. I can understand how that would chaff someone with a scientific background of objectively measurable data, but different fields have different languages.
The numbers don't have to be 'absolute' (whatever that means), but they do have to be given if you want to cloak yourself in words like 'probability' which imply that you have a vague idea of what the probability is.
I use the word, "absolute," to be a quantity of probability that is independent (such as a 50%-60% range), as opposed to "relative," where one explanation for the same evidence is judged to be more probable than an alternative explanation. They are the same two words used to categorize the dating of geological strata. An "absolute" date is a certain X million years ago, and a "relative" date is that a stratum above is younger than a stratum below. "Relative" values don't have numbers--only "more than..." or "less than..."
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Old 02-21-2010, 11:01 AM   #352
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...This sounds nice. It's also quite impossible. Neither historicist nor mythicist can be reaching their conclusions "solely on the basis of evidence." The type of evidence required for that doesn't exist.
This is clearly not true at all. It must be that there is some evidence or information available that has led people to claim Jesus was MYTHOLOGICAL.

It is because of Matthew 1.18, 1.23, 4.1-10, 9.6, Mark 9.2, 16.6, Luke 1.35, John 1, Acts 1.9, Galatians 1 and many more passages why people have considered that Jesus was not a person of history but was MYTHOLOGICAL.

The type of evidence do exist for the MYTH, none can be found for the historicists.

You certainly cannot deny that Jesus was described as the offspring of the Holy Ghost of God and a Virgin who walked on water, transfigured, resurrected and ascended to heaven..

You certainly cannot deny that such is the description of a mythological entity.

That is the type of evidence available about Jesus. See the NT, Church and Apocryphal writings.
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Old 02-21-2010, 11:33 AM   #353
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So, John the Baptist was not historical, and Josephus gets his information from Christians. An examination of the passage leads me to doubt that. Here is that passage:
Now some of the Jews thought that the destruction of Herod's army came from God, and that very justly, as a punishment of what he did against John, that was called the Baptist: for Herod slew him, who was a good man, and commanded the Jews to exercise virtue, both as to righteousness towards one another, and piety towards God, and so to come to baptism; for that the washing [with water] would be acceptable to him, if they made use of it, not in order to the putting away [or the remission] of some sins [only], but for the purification of the body; supposing still that the soul was thoroughly purified beforehand by righteousness. Now when [many] others came in crowds about him, for they were very greatly moved [or pleased] by hearing his words, Herod, who feared lest the great influence John had over the people might put it into his power and inclination to raise a rebellion, (for they seemed ready to do any thing he should advise,) thought it best, by putting him to death, to prevent any mischief he might cause, and not bring himself into difficulties, by sparing a man who might make him repent of it when it would be too late. Accordingly he was sent a prisoner, out of Herod's suspicious temper, to Macherus, the castle I before mentioned, and was there put to death. Now the Jews had an opinion that the destruction of this army was sent as a punishment upon Herod, and a mark of God's displeasure to him.
The single potential hint that this passage has a connection to Christianity or Jesus is the statement: "...for that the washing [with water] would be acceptable to him, if they made use of it, not in order to the putting away [or the remission] of some sins [only], but for the purification of the body..." The proto-orthodox Christian doctrine of baptism was that it was about the washing away of sins, not about the purification of the body, which they would see as a shallow perspective. So, the description seems intended to draw a picture of John the Baptist that is distinct from Christians. Josephus was certainly aware of Jesus and Christianity, and he seemed to want to paint a picture that was a little different from the John the Baptist accepted by Christians. In addition, Josephus contains a few extra details that are not included in the Christian accounts, such as the place of death in the castle Macherus. Therefore, it seems more likely to me that Josephus gained at least some of his information from non-Christian sources, perhaps a small cult surrounding the personality of John the Baptist.
And just what is Josephus' mode of operation - take something and make something else out of it....

Consider Philo's philosophical Essenes. A peaceful community of celibate men. "They avoid cities for fear of the contagion of vice, and live in villages".

Now consider how Josephus enlarged, embellished, that account.

Josephus' Essenes.

"They have no one certain city, but many of them dwell in every city".

Prophets

“There are also among them who undertake to foretell things to come, by reading the holy books, and using several sorts of purifications, and being perpetually conversant in the discourses of the prophets; and it is but seldom that they miss in their predictions”.


Judas, ‘who never missed the truth in his predictions”, predicted the death of Antigonus

Menahem, “who had the foreknowledge of future events given him by God”, made a prophecy concerning Herod the Great,

Simon “a man of the sect of the Essenes, desired to speak his mind freely, and said, that the vision denoted a change in the affairs of Archelaus, and that not for the better...”

An Essene general

John, a general appointed to “the toparchy of Thamma, Lydda was also added to his portion, and Joppa and Emmaus”.

Essenes who marry.


“Moreover, there is another order of Essens, who agree with the rest as to their way of living, and customs, and laws, but differ from them in the point of marriage,

Live very long lives..
"are long-lived.....many of them live above a hundred years".

Looks to me Josephus had a field day with Philo's Essenes - and should we expect any less with the gospel John the Baptist?
Is there direct or indirect evidence that Josephus got all of his information about the Essenes exclusively from Philo? If you have evidence, then there is good reason to make such a conclusion. If Josephus got his information from someone else--maybe from Essenes themselves and his personal experiences with them--then the conclusion does not follow. Josephus does not seem to cite his sources so much, the same as so many other ancient historians, so it makes analysis difficult.
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Old 02-21-2010, 11:59 AM   #354
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Default Past Tributlation/Signs and the Future Apocalypse

Hi ApostateAbe,

Thanks for your quick response.

I guess we have disagreements about both the interpretation of the passage in John and the interpretation of the Little Apocalypse passage in Mark.

As for the passage in the Gospel of John, I don't see a relation to Mark's Little Apocalypse. If we wish to relate it to another text, I think it fits in much better with the Gospel of Thomas and its second line - "1. And he said, "Whoever discovers the interpretation of these sayings will not taste death." Perhaps the beloved disciple is Thomas as theorized by Thomas Charlesworth in "The Beloved Disciple" (or via: amazon.co.uk). Personally, I think the beloved disciple was originally Mary Magdalene, then switched to Thomas and John as later cover stories to disguise the heterosexual romantic origins of the Passion tale.

In any case, we can hopefully agree that it is not very clear that John is responding to Mark's Apocalypse in this passage and such an interpretation is only a possibility.

On the main issue you take this position:

Quote:
You seem to think the predictions refer to the Roman attack against the uprising in Jerusalem, but the predictions seem to be on a worldwide scale, with signs in the heavens, worldwide death, and an invasion directly from heaven, and it would be followed by the establishment of the kingdom of God. You take 70 CE as a minimum date. I take it as a maximum, because the bulk of Jesus' prophecies did not happen by his stated deadline (the deaths of his listeners), which would be about 70 CE.
You apparently disagree with the majority of writers who see this as a reference to the 1st or 2nd Roman-Jewish Wars. You disagree because the prediction seems to be on a worldwide scale with signs in the heavens and talks about worldwide deaths and an invasion directly from heaven.

The Little Apocalyps begins with Jesus talking about the destruction of the "the Great Buildings." He is apparently talking about the Temple Complex in Jerusalem.
The apostles ask him, "when will this be, and what will be the sign when these things are all to be accomplished?". This is really two questions: 1) When will this be, and 2) what will be the sign that this is going to happen. It was a common belief that the Gods gave signs when some great catastrophe was going to happen as a warning to the faithful to escape. If you knew the signs to could take some personal action to escape.

Jesus, answering the second question first, names these signs
1) Many will come in my name
2) you hear of wars and rumors of wars
3) nation will rise against nation, and kingdom against kingdom
4) there will be earthquakes in various places, there will be famines
5) they will deliver you up to councils; and you will be beaten in synagogues; and you will stand before governors and kings for my sake, to bear testimony before them
6) the gospel must first be preached to all nations.
7) And brother will deliver up brother to death, and the father his child, and children will rise against parents and have them put to death;
8) when you see the desolating sacrilege set up where it ought not to be (let the reader understand), then let those who are in Judea flee to the mountains...
9) in those days there will be such tribulation as has not been from the beginning of the creation which God created until now, and never will be
10) if the Lord had not shortened the days, no human being would be saved; but for the sake of the elect, whom he chose, he shortened the days.
11) False Christs and false prophets will arise and show signs and wonders, to lead astray, if possible, the elect.
12) after that tribulation, the sun will be darkened, and the moon will not give its light, and the stars will be falling from heaven, and the powers in the heavens will be shaken.
13) And then they will see the Son of man coming in clouds with great power and glory. And then he will send out the angels, and gather his elect from the four winds, from the ends of the earth to the ends of heaven.
14) when you see these things taking place, you know that he is near, at the very gates.

Up till this point, we have Jesus answering the second question from the apostles about the signs that will come before the temple complex will be destroyed. Jesus now adds this about the signs, "this generation will not pass away before all these things take place. Heaven and earth will pass away, but my words will not pass away."

He then goes on to answer the first question that the apostles asked, "
But of that day or that hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father."

I would make the case that there is significant ambiguity here. For 1-11, Jesus is talking about a sign or signs which he calls a tribulation. In 12, 13, and 14, he is talking about the apocalypse, when presumably no stone will be on no stone in the temple complex. So the tribulation will be the signs or the events in 1-11. These seem to describe the Jewish-Roman War, although it is hard to tell if the references are to the first or second one, or both. These seem to have happened and so the writer reflects on them as in the past in 10. Note that even 11, the false prophets trying to lead the elect astray seem to be happening in the present. Technically it is after the tribulation, but not the apocalypse. However 12-14, the apocalypse are in the future. These are the worldwide events that will be in the future.

When Jesus refers to "all these things" in his statement "this generation will not pass away before all these things take place," it makes the most sense to take it that he is referring to the past events in 1-10 and the present event in 11. He is not referring to 11-14. If we do this, we get a date of either post 70 or post 137. If we do not read it this way, but read 12-14 as part of the series 1-11, then we may say that it is a genuine prediction being made prior to 70.

The only question is if we can eliminate the second Jewish-roman War because the writer says that all these things will happen before this generation will pass away. If the writer is assuming that Jesus is speaking circa 30 C.E. than 137 would be 107 years later. If the writer is assuming that the life span of a generation is 120 years, then the last hearer of the generation has not passed away. He would get the idea of a generational lifespan of 120 years from Genesis 6:3 Then the LORD said, “My Spirit will not contend with man forever, for he is mortal; his days will be a hundred and twenty years.”

Thus we cannot eliminate the idea that the writer might be referring to the Second Jewish-Roman War (133-137).

Warmly,

Philosopher Jay












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Hi ApostateAbe,

You say "the gospel of Mark is not ashamed to quote Jesus as saying, "...this generation will certainly not pass away until all these things have happened, unlike the gospel of John, dated to 90 CE, which merely makes an excuse for that rumor of such a prophecy."

First, I would like to know where in the Gospel of John there is "an excuse for that rumor of such a prophecy." I am unable to locate it.

More importantly, after making this prediction, the writer immediately make an excuse. He has Jesus admit that he doesn't really know the date when something will happen. He says "But of that day or that hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father. "

Here is the entire passage:



The first question that we have to ask is was the writer giving predictions for the future or talking about things that had already happened? From the sentence "And if the Lord had not shortened the days, no human being would be saved; but for the sake of the elect, whom he chose, he shortened the days."

So, in the writer's mind the events have come about that will be a prelude and sign to the Apocalypse and they happened to the generation that Jesus addressed before they died out. Jesus is not predicting the actual apocalypse because "no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the son..." It appears he knows the signs of the approaching apocalyse, but not the exact time.

The only thing that this does is date the text to beyond 70 C.E.. It does not set the date at 70, 80, 90, 100 or 150.

Let us say I am a Mormon writing a story about Joseph Smith who died in 1844. I want to say that he predicted the future accurately and I want to scare my audience into believing that Smith predicted the Apocalypse happening shortly around our time 2010. I might write something like this:



The reader might very well think, "Wow, Smith predicted the Civil War, the assassination of Lincoln and the writing of the Communist Manifesto, this proves he knew the future. If he thought that the end would come shortly after 1850, this being 2010, the end really has to be coming soon, any minute. Oh my God, I'm living on borrowed time. I better save my soul as soon as possible."

This is the effect that the gospel writer appears to me to be going for in his discourse. The only thing we get from this is that the writer is trying to scare his audience that the apocalypse is coming soon and he is writing after the generation that has seen the first signs has passed away -- post 70.

Since we cannot date this writing from this discourse, we are left to find other means to date this discourse. At least 20 Second Century Christian writers do not know of it. Since Justin Martyr and Celsus seem not to know about the Gospel of Mark in 180, we may suggest that close to 180 is a reasonable date. Irenaeus is the first writer we encounter who does know it, but it is only Eusebius who dates him to the 180's, as he may have been later, if he existed at all, Irenaeus is not a good witness to declaring that the gospel of Mark existed positively by 180.

Please be kind enough to point out the fallacies in these deductions, so I may see my errors.

Warmly,

Philosopher Jay
I am happy to explain. The passage from the gospel of John I referring to is this one (John 21:20-24):
20Peter turned and saw that the disciple whom Jesus loved was following them. (This was the one who had leaned back against Jesus at the supper and had said, "Lord, who is going to betray you?") 21When Peter saw him, he asked, "Lord, what about him?"

22Jesus answered, "If I want him to remain alive until I return, what is that to you? You must follow me." 23Because of this, the rumor spread among the brothers that this disciple would not die. But Jesus did not say that he would not die; he only said, "If I want him to remain alive until I return, what is that to you?"

24This is the disciple who testifies to these things and who wrote them down. We know that his testimony is true.
This was apparently an attempt to explain the failure of another phrasing of the same prophecy (Mark 9:1):
And he said to them, "I tell you the truth, some who are standing here will not taste death before they see the kingdom of God come with power."
The four gospels were not originally part of one canon--each church had their own single gospel. The writer of the gospel of John could get away with explaining the prophetic deadline of rival churches as mere rumor.

You seem to be reading more than I am in the verse, "If the Lord had not cut short those days, no one would survive. But for the sake of the elect, whom he has chosen, he has shortened them."

This would be to answer the objection, "In the middle of all that war, distress and the sky falling, how are we supposed to come out alive?" And the answer is that the Lord decided to cut short that time period "for the sake of the elect."

You seem to think the predictions refer to the Roman attack against the uprising in Jerusalem, but the predictions seem to be on a worldwide scale, with signs in the heavens, worldwide death, and an invasion directly from heaven, and it would be followed by the establishment of the kingdom of God. You take 70 CE as a minimum date. I take it as a maximum, because the bulk of Jesus' prophecies did not happen by his stated deadline (the deaths of his listeners), which would be about 70 CE.

As further evidence for this interpretation, I already cited that passage from John, but there is another canonical writing, dated to the mid-2nd century, that makes another different excuse for the failed deadline. It is 2 Peter 3:3-8.
3First of all, you must understand that in the last days scoffers will come, scoffing and following their own evil desires. 4They will say, "Where is this 'coming' he promised? Ever since our fathers died, everything goes on as it has since the beginning of creation." 5But they deliberately forget that long ago by God's word the heavens existed and the earth was formed out of water and by water.

[..]

8But do not forget this one thing, dear friends: With the Lord a day is like a thousand years, and a thousand years are like a day.
They could not make the same excuse as in the gospel of John, probably because they accepted the authority of one of the synoptic gospels (all three of them contain both sets of prophetic deadlines).
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Old 02-21-2010, 12:19 PM   #355
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[B]

And just what is Josephus' mode of operation - take something and make something else out of it....

Consider Philo's philosophical Essenes. A peaceful community of celibate men. "They avoid cities for fear of the contagion of vice, and live in villages".

Now consider how Josephus enlarged, embellished, that account.

Josephus' Essenes.

"They have no one certain city, but many of them dwell in every city".

Prophets

“There are also among them who undertake to foretell things to come, by reading the holy books, and using several sorts of purifications, and being perpetually conversant in the discourses of the prophets; and it is but seldom that they miss in their predictions”.


Judas, ‘who never missed the truth in his predictions”, predicted the death of Antigonus

Menahem, “who had the foreknowledge of future events given him by God”, made a prophecy concerning Herod the Great,

Simon “a man of the sect of the Essenes, desired to speak his mind freely, and said, that the vision denoted a change in the affairs of Archelaus, and that not for the better...”

An Essene general

John, a general appointed to “the toparchy of Thamma, Lydda was also added to his portion, and Joppa and Emmaus”.

Essenes who marry.


“Moreover, there is another order of Essens, who agree with the rest as to their way of living, and customs, and laws, but differ from them in the point of marriage,

Live very long lives..
"are long-lived.....many of them live above a hundred years".

Looks to me Josephus had a field day with Philo's Essenes - and should we expect any less with the gospel John the Baptist?
Is there direct or indirect evidence that Josephus got all of his information about the Essenes exclusively from Philo? If you have evidence, then there is good reason to make such a conclusion. If Josephus got his information from someone else--maybe from Essenes themselves and his personal experiences with them--then the conclusion does not follow. Josephus does not seem to cite his sources so much, the same as so many other ancient historians, so it makes analysis difficult.
The above quotes from Josephus are related to aspects of the Essenes that are different to what Philo wrote. Where did Josephus get his information from - well, if one takes what Rachel Elior has to say re finding no mention of Essenes in any Hebrew or Aramaic writing from the relevant time periods - then I think we can quite easily say that Josephus got all this extra info re the Essenes right out of his very own head....
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Old 02-21-2010, 12:20 PM   #356
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And it's all about you
If you're going to issue the charge that I'm offering a red herring, then yes. It's about me. About my discussion and what is germane to it....
It is a red herring as far as this thread is concerned.

Quote:
It was a yes or no question. Your evasion speaks volumes.
Evasion? I can't know all of the motives of every mythicist. All I know is that it is possible to construct a case for mythicism without anti-Christian animus. So I don't see the relevance of such animus, even if it exists.

Quote:
Quote:
Let me rephrase that. Speculation over other posters' motives is off topic and will get your posts split and moved.
Then it is fortunate indeed that I haven't speculated about any poster's motivations.
Sure.

Quote:
But just to clarify for me any nuances of the rule I'm not understanding. Your comment, less than 100 words ago, about "confessional interests" is an acceptable question of motives, while my equally generic question is deserving of a sober reminder.

Is that because different motives have different rules? Does this correlate to the side of the debate one is on? Or is there some other criteria I'm unaware of?
I've already moved ApostateAbe's thread on this topic to Elsewhere. He has so far failed to prove his case. You can join in if you think you have something to add.

It appears that historicists are so lacking in real proof that they can only engage in baseless speculation about motives or clearly invalid comparisons to creationists. It just gets tiresome.
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Old 02-21-2010, 01:40 PM   #357
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Is there direct or indirect evidence that Josephus got all of his information about the Essenes exclusively from Philo? If you have evidence, then there is good reason to make such a conclusion. If Josephus got his information from someone else--maybe from Essenes themselves and his personal experiences with them--then the conclusion does not follow. Josephus does not seem to cite his sources so much, the same as so many other ancient historians, so it makes analysis difficult.
The above quotes from Josephus are related to aspects of the Essenes that are different to what Philo wrote. Where did Josephus get his information from - well, if one takes what Rachel Elior has to say re finding no mention of Essenes in any Hebrew or Aramaic writing from the relevant time periods - then I think we can quite easily say that Josephus got all this extra info re the Essenes right out of his very own head....
There are several things that strike me as not quite right with the reasoning.

For one thing, Josephus is not the kind of writer who pulls things out of his hind end and writes them down. He is considered to be relatively trustworthy. What would be the motivation for inventing things about the Essenes?

Next, arguments from silence have a very limited application, and it is often misapplied, because many people don't understand the significance of the fact that any writing in such an ancient time that wasn't carved into stone or well-preserved such as in mud or a buried bottle would be lost to history if it wasn't copied time and again generation after generation by groups interested in preserving the history (mainly Christian churches). The argument that Philo and/or Josephus invented the Essenes based on that argument from silence strikes me as sorta out of touch.

If a single scholar promotes an idea that isn't accepted by anyone else in the field, then that, all by itself, should be a red flag, in my opinion.
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Old 02-21-2010, 02:03 PM   #358
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It appears that historicists are so lacking in real proof that they can only engage in baseless speculation about motives
I suggest that there are at least some historicists whose assume that there was a historical Jesus for confessional reasons, whatever the evidence.
-Toto

Quote:
or clearly invalid comparisons to creationists.
And to say that "no one has seen Q" is a serious problem with Q is a good example. I'm reminded of the Alabama school board which inserted in a textbook on evolution (I believe it was) that "no one was there when evolution reputedly took place."
-Earl Doherty

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It just gets tiresome.
Physician, heal thyself.
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Old 02-21-2010, 02:05 PM   #359
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Hi ApostateAbe,

Thanks for your quick response.

I guess we have disagreements about both the interpretation of the passage in John and the interpretation of the Little Apocalypse passage in Mark.

As for the passage in the Gospel of John, I don't see a relation to Mark's Little Apocalypse. If we wish to relate it to another text, I think it fits in much better with the Gospel of Thomas and its second line - "1. And he said, "Whoever discovers the interpretation of these sayings will not taste death." Perhaps the beloved disciple is Thomas as theorized by Thomas Charlesworth in "The Beloved Disciple" (or via: amazon.co.uk). Personally, I think the beloved disciple was originally Mary Magdalene, then switched to Thomas and John as later cover stories to disguise the heterosexual romantic origins of the Passion tale.

In any case, we can hopefully agree that it is not very clear that John is responding to Mark's Apocalypse in this passage and such an interpretation is only a possibility.

On the main issue you take this position:

Quote:
You seem to think the predictions refer to the Roman attack against the uprising in Jerusalem, but the predictions seem to be on a worldwide scale, with signs in the heavens, worldwide death, and an invasion directly from heaven, and it would be followed by the establishment of the kingdom of God. You take 70 CE as a minimum date. I take it as a maximum, because the bulk of Jesus' prophecies did not happen by his stated deadline (the deaths of his listeners), which would be about 70 CE.
You apparently disagree with the majority of writers who see this as a reference to the 1st or 2nd Roman-Jewish Wars. You disagree because the prediction seems to be on a worldwide scale with signs in the heavens and talks about worldwide deaths and an invasion directly from heaven.

The Little Apocalyps begins with Jesus talking about the destruction of the "the Great Buildings." He is apparently talking about the Temple Complex in Jerusalem.
The apostles ask him, "when will this be, and what will be the sign when these things are all to be accomplished?". This is really two questions: 1) When will this be, and 2) what will be the sign that this is going to happen. It was a common belief that the Gods gave signs when some great catastrophe was going to happen as a warning to the faithful to escape. If you knew the signs to could take some personal action to escape.

Jesus, answering the second question first, names these signs
1) Many will come in my name
2) you hear of wars and rumors of wars
3) nation will rise against nation, and kingdom against kingdom
4) there will be earthquakes in various places, there will be famines
5) they will deliver you up to councils; and you will be beaten in synagogues; and you will stand before governors and kings for my sake, to bear testimony before them
6) the gospel must first be preached to all nations.
7) And brother will deliver up brother to death, and the father his child, and children will rise against parents and have them put to death;
8) when you see the desolating sacrilege set up where it ought not to be (let the reader understand), then let those who are in Judea flee to the mountains...
9) in those days there will be such tribulation as has not been from the beginning of the creation which God created until now, and never will be
10) if the Lord had not shortened the days, no human being would be saved; but for the sake of the elect, whom he chose, he shortened the days.
11) False Christs and false prophets will arise and show signs and wonders, to lead astray, if possible, the elect.
12) after that tribulation, the sun will be darkened, and the moon will not give its light, and the stars will be falling from heaven, and the powers in the heavens will be shaken.
13) And then they will see the Son of man coming in clouds with great power and glory. And then he will send out the angels, and gather his elect from the four winds, from the ends of the earth to the ends of heaven.
14) when you see these things taking place, you know that he is near, at the very gates.

Up till this point, we have Jesus answering the second question from the apostles about the signs that will come before the temple complex will be destroyed. Jesus now adds this about the signs, "this generation will not pass away before all these things take place. Heaven and earth will pass away, but my words will not pass away."

He then goes on to answer the first question that the apostles asked, "
But of that day or that hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father."

I would make the case that there is significant ambiguity here. For 1-11, Jesus is talking about a sign or signs which he calls a tribulation. In 12, 13, and 14, he is talking about the apocalypse, when presumably no stone will be on no stone in the temple complex. So the tribulation will be the signs or the events in 1-11. These seem to describe the Jewish-Roman War, although it is hard to tell if the references are to the first or second one, or both. These seem to have happened and so the writer reflects on them as in the past in 10. Note that even 11, the false prophets trying to lead the elect astray seem to be happening in the present. Technically it is after the tribulation, but not the apocalypse. However 12-14, the apocalypse are in the future. These are the worldwide events that will be in the future.

When Jesus refers to "all these things" in his statement "this generation will not pass away before all these things take place," it makes the most sense to take it that he is referring to the past events in 1-10 and the present event in 11. He is not referring to 11-14. If we do this, we get a date of either post 70 or post 137. If we do not read it this way, but read 12-14 as part of the series 1-11, then we may say that it is a genuine prediction being made prior to 70.

The only question is if we can eliminate the second Jewish-roman War because the writer says that all these things will happen before this generation will pass away. If the writer is assuming that Jesus is speaking circa 30 C.E. than 137 would be 107 years later. If the writer is assuming that the life span of a generation is 120 years, then the last hearer of the generation has not passed away. He would get the idea of a generational lifespan of 120 years from Genesis 6:3 Then the LORD said, “My Spirit will not contend with man forever, for he is mortal; his days will be a hundred and twenty years.”

Thus we cannot eliminate the idea that the writer might be referring to the Second Jewish-Roman War (133-137).

Warmly,

Philosopher Jay
Philosopher Jay, cool, let me explain why I disagree with Charlesworth. Again, that quote of Jesus in John reads (with bolding): "If I want him to remain alive until I return, what is that to you?"

Again, the quote of Jesus from Mark 9:1 reads, "I tell you the truth, some who are standing here will not taste death before they see the kingdom of God come with power."

That quote is immediately following Mark 8:38, which reads (again with bolding), "If anyone is ashamed of me and my words in this adulterous and sinful generation, the Son of Man will be ashamed of him when he comes in his Father's glory with the holy angels."

In contrast, the quote from the gospel of Thomas reads, "Whoever discovers the interpretation of these sayings will not taste death."

There is nothing about Jesus coming nor going before anyone tastes death. Instead, it seems to be spinning the apocalyptic prediction established in the synoptic gospels into an entirely different Gnostic direction.

Furthermore, for whatever reason, the gospel of Thomas is generally dated to the year 100 CE, and the gospel of John is generally dated to the year 90 CE, so it is just a little more unlikely that John sourced from Thomas.

I would also like to emphasize that the passage of 2 Peter 3:3-8 should be taken as further reinforcement of my interpretation: Jesus predicted a total apocalypse before "this generation" passes away and before "some of those standing here" taste death. The prophecy did not come true, Christians knew it, so they had to spin excuses for it, as seen in John 21:20-24 and 2 Peter 3:3-8.

Even without those two passages, I think it seems perhaps too ad hoc to propose that "all these things" was really referring to only items 1-10 and not 11-14. Do you really think that is the way Christians of the time would understand it?

"I prophesy that events A, B, C, D and E will occur, and this generation will not pass away before ALL THESE THINGS take place [and I trust you know that I am talking about A, B and C, not D or E, without me making that explicitly clear for you]."
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Old 02-21-2010, 02:40 PM   #360
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Quote:
Originally Posted by arnoldo View Post
...Agreed, the absence of evidence is not a problem. ...
And here, it seems to me, we have the crux of the issue. The apologetic HJ'ers come here expecting the MJ'ers, who are skeptical of the HJ for whatever manifold reasons they may hold, to simply forget the scientific underpinnings of any objective investigation into the matter.

Sorry, arnoldo, but the absence of evidence is a huge problem for the HJ, a problem that makes it difficult if not impossible to even justify an hypothesis that Jesus is, in fact, historical. In science, one needs to have previously generated evidence upon which to base a proper hypothesis. And one needs to have a database of information that is itself not corrupted, or indeed, not corruptible. Another problem for those who would stipulate a HJ.

That you, and others here and elsewhere do not seem to appreciate this demonstrates a lack of understanding of what scientific investigation is all about. On the other hand, a true and objective scientific approach to the issue is not traditionally done, is it? One certainly doesn't see any trace of such an approach for 99.9% of the Biblical scholars who have worked so assiduously over the centuries to promote and glorify the fabulously ornate house of cards that is (the Christian) religion.

While the absence of evidence is a HUGE problem, it is also one which is easily rectified. All one needs is a single reliable artifact which establishes the historicity of Jesus.

This is one atheist who is very hostile to religion who nevertheless would welcome such a fact, as readily as I would welcome an unambiguous demonstration from any living god they He or She actually exists. Sadly, it seems that like all the previous versions of well-described and widely-worshiped Godheads eventually rejected by humanity, the Bible gives a clear and richly-detailed testimony about yet another entity who gives absolutely no indication that it has ever existed.

All of this works against ApostateAbe's intangible 'relative probability scale', because the burden of proof for the HJ requires a lot more substance than anything that might be sussed out of an inherently-incoherent heavily-redacted internal document of the Christian religion.

The HJ hypothesis is almost as much of a non starter as the God Hypothesis itself- without evidence they both fail before they take their first step. Which means that the non historicity of Jesus Christ should be assumed as true until some real evidence is unearthed to disprove it. Just like Noah, Moses, and a hundred other well-limned personages from the Biblical text who are now assumed to be fictional.
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