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Old 03-04-2006, 09:08 PM   #571
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Default A simple invalidation of the Tyre prophecy

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Ontological arguments are arguments, for the conclusion that God exists, from premises which are supposed to derive from some source other than observation of the world - e.g., from reason alone. In other words, ontological arguments are arguments from nothing but analytic, a priori and necessary premises to the conclusion that God exists.
Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
This is an incomplete explanation.
Then please give us a complete explanation.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Descartes' ontological (or a priori) argument is both one of the most fascinating and poorly understood aspects of his philosophy. Fascination with the argument stems from the effort to prove God's existence from simple but powerful premises. Existence is derived immediately from the clear and distinct idea of a supremely perfect being. Ironically, the simplicity of the argument has also produced several misreadings, exacerbated in part by Descartes' failure to formulate a single version.
Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
"supremely perfect being". Keep an eye on that phrase.
Please give us your definition of “perfect” as it applies to God, and after you do, please provide evidence that God is perfect other than “the Bible says so.”

In my previous post, I said:

Quote:
Originally Posted by JohnnySkeptic
If intelligent design is a given, it is your task to provide credible evidence that there is a necessary correlation between the ability to convert energy into matter and morality. Do you preclude a reasonable possibility that an advanced alien race has the ability to convert energy into matter. If so, why? If not, then if an advanced alien race has the ability to convert energy into matter, must they by necessity be moral?
You did not reply to that argument. Please do so.
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Old 03-04-2006, 09:38 PM   #572
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Default A simple invalidation of the Tyre prophecy

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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver
Do you really have any idea what I'm talking about? Do you really have no clue about any incident reported in the Bible that a reasonable person might construe as a genocide either committed by God or committed by his followers on his explicit orders?
Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
In my experience, these "incidents" are usually misrepresented by people who are masquerading as skeptics.
God told Moses that if a Jew killed a Jew, he was to be put to death, but if a Jew killed a slave, he would only be punished. Do you believe that that was fair for slaves? Do you believe that it was fair for God to kill babies at Tyre, Sodom and Gomorrah, and at New Orleans when he created Hurricane Katrina and sent it there? Will you justify those actions by God based soley upon your claim that Adam and Eve ate forbidden fruit, and that God has had a right to get even with mankind ever since any way that he wants to get even? If the story of Adam and Eve is true, Adam and Eve were treated unfairly. They had no concept of good and evil, they were not sufficiently warned about the serpent, and God shouldn't have put a serpent in the garden in the first place. If Adam and Eve had never sinned, what in the world would they have had to discuss? They would have had no concept of comparing good with evil, good days and bad days, sickness and health, good food and bad food, war and peace, and happiness and sorrow.
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Old 03-04-2006, 09:47 PM   #573
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Default A simple invalidation of the Tyre prophecy

I notice that Bfniii did not reply to the following from one of my previous posts, so here it is again:

http://www.infidels.org/library/maga.../983front.html

The Prophecy Farce, by Farrell Till

What about all of the prophecy fulfillments? Biblicists almost always ask this question when their belief in biblical inerrancy is challenged. No doubt those who ask the question sincerely believe that prophecy fulfillment is irrefutable proof that the Bible was divinely inspired, but in reality the question reflects a naive view of the Bible for which no credible evidence exists. The "evidence" most often cited by prophecy-fulfillment proponents will usually fall into two categories: (1) Unverifiable claims by biased biblical writers that certain events fulfilled certain prophecies. (2) "Fulfillments" of prophecies that were probably written after the fact. Anyone can successfully refute prophecy-fulfillment assertions by simply demanding clear evidence when confronted with either category of claims. In other words, if a biblicist cites a New Testament claim that such and such event fulfilled such and such prophecy, simply insist on seeing reliable nonbiblical corroboration that the alleged fulfillment event actually happened. Herod's massacre of the children in Bethlehem would be an example of an uncorroborated event. The massacre allegedly fulfilled an Old Testament prophecy (Matt. 2:18), but no one has ever found an extrabiblical source that corroborates the lone biblical reference to this event. If corroborating evidence of a fulfillment event should exist, then demand evidence that the "prophecy" of this event was undeniably written before the event. In the debate over Jeremiah's 70-year prophecy, which resumes in this issue of TSR (pp. 4-11), the demand for clear, undeniable evidence that this prophecy was made before the fact has proven to be an insurmountable hurdle for Dr. Price, who has yet to produce extrabiblical corroboration of the prophecy.

Another--and even more effective-- counterargument to use against those who claim that prophecy fulfillment proves the inspiration of the Bible requires sufficient knowledge of the Bible to show that many Old Testament prophecies obviously failed. Anyone who is willing to put the time into learning just a few of those failures will have no problems rebutting the prophecy-fulfillment claims of any biblicists he/she may encounter. The prophetic tirades of Isaiah (13-23) and Ezekiel (24-32) against the nations surrounding Israel provide a treasure house of unfulfilled prophecies. Ezekiel, for example, prophesied that Nebuchadnezzar would destroy Egypt and leave it utterly desolate for a period of 40 years, during which no foot of man or beast would pass through it (chapter 20), but history recorded no such desolation of Egypt during or after the reign of Nebuchadnezzar.

Ezekiel also prophesied that Nebuchadnezzar would destroy Tyre, which would never again be rebuilt (26:7-14, but Nebuchadnezzar's siege of Tyre failed to take the city, and Tyre still exists today. A curious thing about this prophecy against Tyre is that Isaiah also predicted that Tyre would be destroyed, but, whereas Ezekiel predicted that Tyre would be permanently destroyed and "nevermore have any being," Isaiah prophesied that it would be made desolate only for a period of 70 years. A comparison of these two prophecies is an easy way to show the silliness of claiming that prophecy fulfillment proves the inspiration of the Bible.

As noted in my exchanges with Matthew Hogan on Ezekiel's tirade against Tyre (September/October 1997; November/December 1997), Ezekiel clearly predicted that Tyre would be destroyed, become a bare rock and a place for spreading nets, and would be built no more forever (26:7-14, 21; 27:28; 28:19). As Ezekiel did, Isaiah in his prophecies of destruction against the nations around Israel also predicted the overthrow of Tyre. In 23:1, he said, "The burden of Tyre. Howl, you ships of Tarshish; for it is laid waste, so that there is no house, no entering in: from the land of Kittim it is revealed to them." The prophecy continued in typical fashion through the chapter, predicting waste and devastation, but beginning in verse 13, Isaiah indicated that the destruction of Tyre would be only temporary, not permanent:

“Look at the land of the Chaldeans! This is the people; it was not Assyria. They destined Tyre for wild animals. They erected their siege towers, they tore down her palaces, they made her a ruin. Wail, O ships of Tarshish, for your fortress is destroyed. From that day Tyre will be forgotten for seventy years, the lifetime of one king. At the end of seventy years, it will happen to Tyre as in the song about the prostitute: Take a harp, go about the city, you forgotten prostitute! Make sweet melody, sing many songs, that you may be remembered. At the end of seventy years, Yahweh will visit Tyre, and she will return to her trade, and will prostitute herself with all the kingdoms of the world on the face of the earth. Her merchandise and her wages will be dedicated to Yahweh; her profits will not be stored or hoarded, but her merchandise will supply abundant food and fine clothing for those who live in the presence of Yahweh.”

So Ezekiel predicted a permanent destruction of Tyre that would last forever, but Isaiah predicted just a temporary destruction that would last only 70 years or the estimated lifetime of one king. The fact is that neither prophecy was ever fulfilled. Nebuchadnezzar did not destroy Tyre forever, and it was never made desolate for a period of 70 years. Even when Alexander the Great succeeded in his campaign against Tyre in 332 B. C., the city was soon rebuilt (Wallace B. Fleming, The History of Tyre, Columbia University Press, p. 64) and has existed ever since. Matthew Hogan was objective enough in his consideration of the evidence to admit later that Ezekiel's prophecy against Tyre had failed ("From the Mailbag," TSR, March/ April 1997, p. 12), but regardless of whether this prophecy failed or succeeded, it was impossible for both Isaiah's and Ezekiel's prophecies against Tyre to succeed. At least one of them had to fail, and so proponents of biblical prophecy fulfillment have a problem that they must explain. If the Bible was really inspired by an omniscient, omnipotent deity, why would he have directed one prophet to predict a temporary destruction of Tyre and then later direct another prophet to predict that Tyre would be destroyed “forever” and never be rebuilt? A likely answer is that neither prophet was divinely inspired; they both simply blustered in the exaggerated rhetoric typical of biblical prophets and, working independently, contradicted each other.
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Old 03-05-2006, 06:26 AM   #574
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Bifnii:

OK, I give up.

For the time being, I have had all I can take of your insults, evasions, special pleadings, pettifogging, balderdash and nonsense.
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Old 03-05-2006, 05:24 PM   #575
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bfniii:
Quote:
Why on Earth do you imagine that www.bible.org is a scholarly source?

interesting. instead of responding to the points in the article, which i didn't think you would anyway, you try this ad hominem.
Except that, of course, I DID respond to the article. I pointed out that it didn't address the previous chapters in which the identity of the "suffering servant" was established.

...Which you then snipped, in order to pretend that there was no response.
Quote:
The BIBLE says that the "suffering servant" is Israel (Isaiah 41:8, 49:3). Therefore anyone who says otherwise is WRONG. Therefore anyone who claims to be a "scholar", but is unaware of the identity of the "suffering servant", is INCOMPETENT.

hmm. in 49:3, the servant actually brings about the restoration of israel. in that sense, the servant is mentioned apart from the nation of israel. this servant has a mission to israel. therefore, this particular servant is not israel.
Incorrect. God says (to the servant) "Thou art my servant Israel, in whom I will be glorified".

The servant is Israel, and through Israel will God be glorified. No mention of any other servants here.
Quote:
God has more than one servant. therefore, the servant mentioned in 41:8 is not necessarily the same one mentioned in 53 nor did you show such a connection. yet, you triumphantly claim that it is. that's dishonest.
Only one servant is ever mentioned throughout the "suffering servant" section of Isaiah. This is the same sort of utterly unsupported crackpottery that we've seen before. Different walls in Tyre, different censuses... you have no basis in making such claims, and THAT's dishonest.
Quote:
furthermore, notice the difference in pronoun; "you" in 41, "he" in 53. the suffering servant, even when superficially referred to as israel, is actually referring to the messiah on a deeper, symbolic level. there are many such references all throughout the OT.
In the earlier verses, Isaiah is quoting God talking TO the servant ("you"). In the later verses, God is talking ABOUT the servant ("he"), to Isaiah's readers.

And your "deeper references" are the inventions of Christian apologists. There is certainly no evidence for them in the text.
Quote:
Yes, it has been suggested that Isaiah had a specific person in mind: but that person was probably King Uzziah, king in Isaiah's time,

isaiah is one of the most often quoted OT authors. chapter 53 is a favorite of NT jews and they weren't referring to king uzziah.
..."NT Jews"? Do you mean "Christians"?
Quote:
King Uzziah who died of leprosy (note that the "suffering servant" is diseased: or did you not notice that?).

if you are referring to 53:4, neither "[gn" nor "hkn" mean diseased. the holman bible says "a man of suffering who knew what sickness was".
Isaiah 53:4 "...yet we did esteem him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted". Strong's Concordance, naga: "d) (Pual) to be stricken (by disease)". Commonly translated by Jews as "diseased", but of course the Christians would like it to say something different.
Quote:
Jesus was rejected by (most) Jews because he FAILED to fulfil the ACTUAL messianic prophecies

no, he failed to fulfill the idea of messiah held by those people. however, they didn't represent everyone. furthermore, it is also well known that the jews that rejected Jesus did so mostly because they had the mistaken impression that Jesus would be a miltant messiah.
...Because that's what the actual messianic prophecies predict, yes.
Quote:
(IIRC, you ran away from a debate on this subject before).

i did? where was that?
Here, and here.
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Isaiah 53 wasn't one of them: it isn't a messianic prophecy, and never has been.

good grief. the idea of a messiah came directly from passages such as isaiah 53. otherwise, the jews wouldn't have even had such a notion.
It came from the Bible, yes: but not from Isaiah 53.

If you would simply ASK the Jews about their messianic prophecies, or VISIT sites such as Jews for Judaism, you'll find that they are quite willing to TELL you which verses you should be looking at. There really is no excuse for this ongoing ignorance.
Quote:
So, without any actual examples of clearly-intended-as-prophecy written in the past tense: there remains no basis for your claim.

i have already provided examples and you have already acknowledged at least one.

...Really? Which one have I "already acknowledged"?

"the book of ezekiel", post number 305. you later specify ezekiel 29.
Wrong as usual. Ezekiel 29 was written AFTER the siege of Tyre (hence, not a prophecy). I never claimed that this WAS a prophecy. The PROPHECY is Nebby's future conquest and depopulation of Egypt (which failed).
Quote:
what about genesis 1:6 is incorrect?

It doesn't exist. There is no "firmament" which "divides the waters".

why isn't land the firmament?
The firmament (Hebrew "raqiya`") is the solid sky-dome to which the stars are attached, not "the land".
Quote:
Originally Posted by Strong's Concordance
Outline of Biblical Usage
1) extended surface (solid), expanse, firmament
a) expanse (flat as base, support)
b) firmament (of vault of heaven supporting waters above)
1) considered by Hebrews as solid and supporting 'waters' above
Quote:
Adam wasn't sculpted from clay,

that's not what genesis says. it says from the substance of the ground, or from the earth.

Eve wasn't made from Adam's rib.

that you know of.
Clay, dirt, "dust of the ground", whatever. Yet another thing the Bible got wrong.
Quote:
...Ah. Maybe the aythor should have cleared everything up by using a phrase such as "all... under the whole Heaven". Oh, wait, he DID. Again, it's virtually impossible to imagine HOW he could have made this ANY clearer.

"under the whole of heaven" is not qualified like you think it is. "~ymX" could be translated "visible sky". i am not supporting a localized flood. i am saying there are multiple interpretations, despite what you think.

Not according to the KJV, NLT, NKJV, NASB, RSV, Webster's, Young's, Darby's, ASV, HNV, Vulgate...

the kjv, nlt, nkjv, nasb, rsv, asv and the vulgate are translations of the bible. they don't make a definitive statement regarding the extent of the flood. you may have a study bible with study notes but even in that case, it's not the translation itself that makes the statement, it's the scholars who added the notes. the other few sources you mention represent just one theory.

... and, according to the Hebrew cosmology, the entire sky is "visible" (everyone on the flat Earth can see the whole interior of the dome), so there's no distinction anyhow.

from what source do you derive the idea that the hebrews considered the entire sky visible?
Repeating a falsehood doesn't make it true. As previously explained, the Bible DOES make a definitive statement regarding the extent of the Flood. And we know all about the Hebrew sky-dome cosmology from various sources, including (for instance) 1 Enoch, which you have been referred to before.
Quote:
And I've already pointed out that many Christians don't even believe that Jesus rose from the dead (at least, not physically), and posted proof of this.

you have done no such thing. you cited a vague article that itself didn't even list any source other than another vague reference to a poll. regardless, the mistakes of some christians does not mean those mistakes are endorsed by christianity.
So, rather than accept that many Christians don't believe Jesus (physically) rose from the dead: you'd prefer to believe that Christians would lie about conducting a poll, you arbitrarily label their belief as "mistakes", and you prefer to believe there is something called "Christianity" which doesn't "endorse" their beliefs (i.e. you have declared yourself Pope and excommunicated them).

...And I couldn't

Back to Ezekiel:
Quote:
Nebby's post-Tyre attack on Egypt is almost invisible to history. There is very little sign that any such conflict ever took place.

argument from silence.

It appears to have been nothing more than a border skirmish.

based on what evidence?
Based on the total LACK of ANY evidence whatsoever that anything more happened! Have you entirely forgotten WHAT Nebby was supposed to do to Egypt?

Heck, maybe the Soviet Union fell because NATO conquered it with a million tanks in WW3. Any claim to the contrary would just be an argument from silence.

And so, back to Tyre, and its walls:
Quote:
No. There is ONE set of walls that determine the OUTCOME of the conflict. One set that determines WHO WILL WIN. One set that is relevant to the ISSUE being "prophesied".

a conjecture that you don't even bother trying to support at all.

Wrong again. History shows that my "conjecture" was correct.

still no support.
So now, in Bfniii's Fantasy Universe, Nebby actually DID breach the walls and conquer Tyre!

Why are we still having a discussion about a subject you know ABSOLUTELY NOTHING about, even after all this time? We seem to be going backwards. Next you'll be denying the EXISTENCE of Tyre, and demanding that I provide "support" for the notion that it DOES exist!
Quote:
The historical accounts agree that the final settlement was a COMPROMISE that was very favorable to Tyre: the "surrender" was a token gesture. That's why Nebby ended up much poorer after the 13-year siege.

sources?
Amazing. Truly amazing. WHY can't you find these things out for yourself, bfniii? SURELY you've checked Wikipedia by now, at least?
Quote:
Originally Posted by WikiPedia
It was often attacked by Egypt, besieged by Shalmaneser III, who was assisted by the Phoenicians of the mainland, for five years, and by Nebuchadnezzar (586–573 BC) for thirteen years, apparently without success, although a compromise peace was made in which Tyre paid tribute to the Babylonians. It later fell under the power of the Persians.
Quote:
"Whatever remained of Tyre as a nation" SURVIVED Alexander's conquest.

you have shown no historical source that agrees with this assertion. the one that came the closest, the "biography" of alexander by Quintus Curtius Rufus, is known to contain inaccuracies. regardless, even if 15k people did somehow make it back, which isn't well supported, there is no indication that they were able to reform the sovereign nation of tyre and rebuild it of their own efforts. to the contrary, what history does seem to support is that western powers started running the area of tyre.

A couple of decades later, it was as if Alexander had never been. He made NO PERMANENT DIFFERENCE to Tyre's status: physical, political, whatever.

i sure would like it if you provided some sort of historical justification for these statements

...Huh? Alexander never destroyed the island. He damaged the island citadel

semantics. what was tyre on that island was no more when he got through with it. he swept away the last vestiges. there may have been some buildings still standing, but the sovereign nation of tyre was done.
bfniii, why do I keep having to provide "historical justification" to refute a story you're just making up as you go along, with no citations from you whatsoever? MANY sources have been provided, on SEVERAL threads now, giving various overviews of the history of Tyre. Yet now you wish to pretend that Tyre was NOT a part of the Persian Empire when Alexander attacked, and you want to imagine that it was still a "sovereign nation" JUST so that you can pretend that Alexander "destroyed" it? (...meanwhile hoping that we'd forget that the failed prophecy referred to the permanent physical destruction of the city anyhow?)

Tyre was Persian when Alexander attacked it (indeed, a Tyrian rebellion against Persian rule had been crushed previously). And it returned to prosperity AFTER Alexander had left, and less than two decades later it withstood a siege by the Macedonian general Antigonus for more than a year. But, rather than provide more sources for you to ignore, I'll let YOU find them this time.

...Or maybe YOU will deign to provide us with YOUR "historical sources" (probably apologetics sites ) which say otherwise.
Quote:
Indeed it is! He needs to overcome the walls FIRST, in order to REACH the houses. You are, of course, misrepresenting what Ezekiel actually says. Here's the actual sequence:

26:7 Nebby attacks.
26:8 Nebby hits the mainland "daughters".
26:9 Attacks the walls and breaks down the towers.
26:10 The walls shake, the gates are breached.
26:11 Nebby's forces enter and run amok, moving and slaughtering freely.
26:12 General looting and destruction, including the toppling of walls and the destruction of houses.


but the point is you have presented no historical evidence that contradicts that this might have, and probably did, happen on the mainland.
But Ezekiel is referring to the ISLAND. This is clear from the text. The switch from "your [Tyre's] daughters in the field" (mainland settlements) to "your" [Tyre's] walls and towers. And the failed prophecy that Nebby's horses would go down ALL Tyre's streets (which would HAVE to include those on the island). And so on.

Also, Nebby was actually the one who was supposed to destroy Tyre completely and permanently: you seem to have forgotten that you have NOT demonstrated that the prophecy should be split into "Nebby's part" and "somebody else's part". You haven't justified from the text your notion that "many nations" does NOT refer to Nebby's army of many nations (no other conqueror is named), and you have repeatedly ignored Farrell Till's evidence regarding Ezekiel's unreliable use of pronouns:
Quote:
Originally Posted by Farrell Till
Before we examine this prophecy, let's first notice that ungrammatical pronoun shifts were characteristic of Ezekiel's writing. In the following examples from Ezekiel, to show how obvious the shifts are, I will italicize the antecedent and emphasize in bold print the pronoun referring back to the antecedent:

Lie also on your left side, and lay the iniquity of the house of Israel upon it. According to the number of the days that you lie on it, you shall bear their iniquity (4:4).

Son of man, write down the name of the day, this very day -- the king of Babylon started his siege against Jerusalem this very day. And utter a parable to the rebellious house, and say to them ... (24:2-3).

Syria was your merchant because of the abundance of goods you made. They gave you for your wares emeralds, purple, embroidery, fine linen, corals, and rubies (27:16).

And the land of Egypt shall become desolate and waste; then they will know that I am Yahweh (29:9).

Behold, I am against you, Sidon; I will be glorified in your midst; and they shall know that I am Yahweh (28:20).

I could cite many other examples, but these are enough to establish that Ezekiel had a habit of ungrammatically shifting pronoun references in his writing. In the last example, when Ezekiel had Yahweh addressing Sidon in the second person (you and your), he inadvertently shifted and had the statement finish with a third person plural (they) reference back to the singular Sidon.
Quote:
Translation: you have no argument. There is no Biblical basis for any of your assertions regarding Tyre.

except for the ones i have been posting for the last several hundred posts. i have supported my statements with actual biblical verses where appropriate including referring to the original hebrew. anyone who is reading this can go back through my posts to see this is true.

i have asked, again and again, for you to provide the actual text that forms the basis of your arguments. whenever i make such a request, you reply with the equivalent of "because i said so".
Again, anyone can see that this is the exact opposite of the truth. You make unsupported assertions with no regard for the actual text or the wider context.
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Old 03-06-2006, 10:33 AM   #576
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Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
there were specific points in the article that were germane to topic of the suffering servant. interestingly enough, none of them referred to the nation of israel or king uzziah. jack, predictably, tried to discredit the source instead of respond to the points. that's a pretty classic ad hominem.
Ah, the classic ad hominem. How ad hominems used to be, before we understood what hominem meant. Why didn't you say silly? I thought you meant ad hominem like everybody understands it nowadays, ie you need to have a hominem. You can remember this rule by humming this simple mnemonic (careful - once you start you can't stop):

Ad hominem dut dur dut dut duh
Ad hominem dut dur dut duh
Ad hominem dut dur dut dut duh
Dut dut duddle dut dut duddut duh

Boro Nut
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Old 03-07-2006, 12:32 PM   #577
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Default response to post #571

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Then please give us a complete explanation. Please give us your definition of “perfect” as it applies to God, and after you do, please provide evidence that God is perfect other than “the Bible says so.”
read post #505



Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
You did not reply to that argument. Please do so.
yes i did over the course of several posts.
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Old 03-07-2006, 12:41 PM   #578
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Default response to post #572

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
God told Moses that if a Jew killed a Jew, he was to be put to death, but if a Jew killed a slave, he would only be punished. Do you believe that that was fair for slaves? Do you believe that it was fair for God to kill babies at Tyre, Sodom and Gomorrah, and at New Orleans when he created Hurricane Katrina and sent it there?
i have addressed all of this in the biblical errors thread.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Will you justify those actions by God based soley upon your claim that Adam and Eve ate forbidden fruit, and that God has had a right to get even with mankind ever since any way that he wants to get even?
god allows suffering because there is purpose in suffering. He's not trying to "get even".



Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
If the story of Adam and Eve is true, Adam and Eve were treated unfairly. They had no concept of good and evil,
you can elicit semantics all you want, but they knew in advance what not to do.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
they were not sufficiently warned about the serpent,
what does that have to do with the tree? typical, trying to blame someone else.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
and God shouldn't have put a serpent in the garden in the first place.
why not?
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Old 03-07-2006, 12:43 PM   #579
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Default response to post #573

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
I notice that Bfniii did not reply to the following from one of my previous posts, so here it is again:

http://www.infidels.org/library/maga.../983front.html
read post #556
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Old 03-07-2006, 12:45 PM   #580
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Doug Shaver
OK, I give up. For the time being, I have had all I can take of your insults, evasions, special pleadings, pettifogging, balderdash and nonsense.
i have read those posts again and i don't see any egregious insult. if i did insult you, i'm sorry. i'm not sure what i said to insult you.

i certainly don't see any evasion or special pleading.
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