Peter Kirby

My understanding is that a portion of the population continued to speak Hebrew for a long time after the Babylonian conquest, through the time of Jesus.

Anyone else want to take a stab at the particulars? Anyone?

-Jay-

Is this any different than in, say, Canada, where lots of folks speak both English and French? Do you have any reason to suppose that both Hebrew and Aramaic weren't in common use at the time?

What I've read on the Babylonian conquest suggests to me that the majority of the population would be allowed to preserve most of their cultural identity (language included), so long as they weren't disruptive to the empire as a whole. Naturally, Aramaic would begin to insinuate itself into the Hebrew-speaking population over time as the Aramaic speakers mingled with the Hebrew speakers, but it would be a generations-long process, especially if one supposes that the Hebrew speakers had a strong cultural connection to their language.

regards,

NinJay

judge

In the time of Christ jews in Judea spoke a dialect of Aramaic commonly called Chaldaic. This was because the jews had been captive in babylon. This is also called Imperial Mesopotamian Aramaic.
Hebrew continued as well in Judea.

Samaritans and Galileans with their Assyrian populants, would have spoken an Assyrian dialect of Aramaic.

Casper

Ahh, that is beginning to make more sense. Chaldaic, or a Judean-Aramaic dialect, arose from the cultural mixing; the earlier hebrew (itself kind of a dialect I suppose) lived on in tradition and writing.

Thank you all, I promise I was not trying to be obtuse, just confused.

gdeering

If this is going to be a FAQ, some Qs of the top of my head, before I get back to work:

Did the Hebrews have any morality before the Ten Commandments? If so how did they get it?

It would be nice to have a one sentence understanding of Hell or the after life. "Eternal fire" is a good enough for an idea of the Christian Hell.

Information on the Temple in Jerusalem as the main slaughter house for the religion, and information on the structure of the "Priestly classes." Did God intend for the Israelites to have a social structure like this? I understand why (historically) it was jettisoned, but ought it to have been if God set it up?

Finally, for New Yorkers - Aren't the Hassidim a medieval cult? Why do people think they represent "authentic" Judaism?



Gregg

3DJay

7 Noahide Laws


Peace

Pilgrim

What do you think about Bart Ehrman? I've just finished Lost Christianities and have Misquoting Jesus to start next. I enjoyed the book and realize there's almost no such thing as objective literature, but I'm looking for the closest things I can find. Suggestions?

Thanks!

RED DAVE

I wasn't kidding when I posted this originally. Still looking for answers:

Two Questions:

1) Are there any sources for OT stories that are as extensive as the source for the Flood tale in the Epic of Gilgamesh.

2) Is there any known source for Lamentations?

RED DAVE

Magdlyn

Obviously they did not have thou shalt not steal or cover the neighbor's wife.

There was no afterlife in the traditional Hebrew theology. Sheol was a resting place. Nothing was going on there.

When the Temple was destroyed, so the was priestly sacrificial system. However, Koheins (Cohens) and Levites descendants still supposedly survive to this day and are according respect in modern Jewish synogogues.

Magdlyn

Robert Price, The Incredible Shrinking Son of Man

Karen Armstrong, The History of God