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Old 04-16-2012, 07:39 AM   #11
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Therefore if we are dealing with "the days of the completion of the world" we could be dealing with an allegorical narrative concerning "the days of the completion of the Platonic world".
I have no idea what "the completion of the Platonic world" would mean in terms of thinking of the time.
When did the Hellenic (and Platonic) world get turned on its head?

Who is known to have stated:

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"Socrates critical questioning ... menace to the state".
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Old 04-19-2012, 12:23 PM   #12
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Thanks GDon. It's not a trap. I am in the dark just like everyone else. There is nothing in these ancient non canonical texts that has permitted the scholars and academics who have examined them to be certain about their hypothetical chronology.
MM, I reject the notion "We don't know for sure, therefore we don't know at all." We can guess, and say "this is a good guess, based on the data available". Someone can always "Ned Ludd" any piece of data, that is, propose an alternate possibility, as if the mere existence of an alternative disproves any of the others, but that in itself is meaningless.

No it is not meaningless is there if evidence against the position. You do not seem to understand the concept of positive and negative evidence, and how the consensus of the assessment of much evidence represents a balance sheet of both kinds.

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The question to be asked is "What is the best explanation for the data we have?"

That is more or less correct, however the question is actually "What is the best explanation for all the data we have?" Looking at ALL the data is not a matter of guesswork. It is an examination of ALL the data.

Just because this text has been classified outside of the New Testament apocrypha, and included within the Old Testament Pseudepigrapha, it should not automatically precude the possibility that it is a later heretical Gnostic work, since the LXX was published to the Roman Empire along with the NT.
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