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04-16-2012, 07:39 AM | #11 | ||
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04-19-2012, 12:23 PM | #12 | ||
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No it is not meaningless is there if evidence against the position. You do not seem to understand the concept of positive and negative evidence, and how the consensus of the assessment of much evidence represents a balance sheet of both kinds. Quote:
That is more or less correct, however the question is actually "What is the best explanation for all the data we have?" Looking at ALL the data is not a matter of guesswork. It is an examination of ALL the data. Just because this text has been classified outside of the New Testament apocrypha, and included within the Old Testament Pseudepigrapha, it should not automatically precude the possibility that it is a later heretical Gnostic work, since the LXX was published to the Roman Empire along with the NT. |
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