FRDB Archives

Freethought & Rationalism Archive

The archives are read only.


Go Back   FRDB Archives > Archives > Religion (Closed) > Biblical Criticism & History
Welcome, Peter Kirby.
You last visited: Today at 03:12 PM

 
 
Thread Tools Search this Thread
Old 04-22-2012, 09:01 PM   #11
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2012
Location: Oregon
Posts: 738
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by sotto voce View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Grog View Post
On his blog, Vridar is attempting an application of BT to the question of Galatians 1:19 and whether this reference is to a sibling of Jesus of Nazareth.
It's a reference to the sibling of 'the Lord'. Did the author suppose that 'the Lord' was Jesus of Nazareth? He referred to 'Lord Jesus Christ' a few lines earlier, so this is possible. The name 'Jesus' was fairly common; there are four other men of that name mentioned in the NT. Three of them were long deceased at the time of writing, and the remaining one is mentioned only in passing as a follower of 'the Lord', who may have been Jesus of Nazareth.
We know this case and aren't convinced by it. The response that follows your's seems to be a stronger one. You would say that I am biased, but why? As part of my adopting a provisional, tentative "mythicist" point of view, I considered this argument and felt it wasn't strong enough to carry the day. Not only does the alternative point make more sense within the context of Galatians, I believe if it were to mean "sibling of Jesus" it stands against the greater weight of Paul's writings and thus would be a suspect phrase in an already compromised document.

But we could do this around in circles and we wouldn't really get us anywhere.
Grog is offline  
Old 04-23-2012, 01:11 AM   #12
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: nowhere
Posts: 15,747
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by sotto voce View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by spin View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by sotto voce View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Grog View Post
On his blog, Vridar is attempting an application of BT to the question of Galatians 1:19 and whether this reference is to a sibling of Jesus of Nazareth.
It's a reference to the sibling of 'the Lord'. Did the author suppose that 'the Lord' was Jesus of Nazareth? He referred to 'Lord Jesus Christ' a few lines earlier, so this is possible.
Paul doesn't generally use "brother" in a biological sense but to indicate a believer in his religion.
The Galatians were foolish, but surely they didn't need to be told that an apostle had to be a Christian.
Who said anything about need? Did Paul need to call Jesus "the lord Jesus" so frequently? You'd say, "The Galatians were foolish, but surely they didn't need to be told that Jesus had the title of "lord" so often. "

Quote:
Originally Posted by sotto voce View Post
Quote:
The term "brothers of the lord" is used in 1 Cor 9:5 for a group of believers with elevated status
How is that known?
Paul tells us when he deals with the as he deals with apostles.

Quote:
Originally Posted by sotto voce View Post
Quote:
so that the phrase itself might be honorific, indicating believers with high status
Along with James, John and Peter, Paul addressed all his male fellows as brothers.
But not as "brothers of the lord", as in those who could have sister wives, like the apostles.

Quote:
Originally Posted by sotto voce View Post
His fellow Jews, too, including the unconverted. Jesus called all his male disciples his brothers. There was no special honour. Very naughty!

And perfectly absurd. Why people waste their time on such nonsense is beyond comprehension.
You could just as easily say, "Why people waste their time listening to such apologetic inanity from you is beyond comprehension."

You simply omitted part of the phrase in order to show your inability to comprehend the discourse. All believers were "brothers", but only some of them were "brothers of the lord" and Paul indicates that they had an elevated status. James was one of the three pillars of the community.

Quote:
Originally Posted by sotto voce View Post
Quote:
just as James is the foremost pillar of the Jerusalem community.
The stench of right-wing Catholic ordure, it seems.
Your comment is just too personal and distanced from what I said. I don't know why you are talking about Catholicism here. You aren't dealing with the discourse at all. If you think that James was not the foremost of the pillars, you might like to say so giving reasons, but, as is, you don't seem to be talking to me with your comment. I can only glean the bile it holds.
spin is offline  
Old 04-23-2012, 02:23 AM   #13
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Nov 2011
Location: UK
Posts: 3,057
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Grog View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by sotto voce View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Grog View Post
On his blog, Vridar is attempting an application of BT to the question of Galatians 1:19 and whether this reference is to a sibling of Jesus of Nazareth.
It's a reference to the sibling of 'the Lord'. Did the author suppose that 'the Lord' was Jesus of Nazareth? He referred to 'Lord Jesus Christ' a few lines earlier, so this is possible. The name 'Jesus' was fairly common; there are four other men of that name mentioned in the NT. Three of them were long deceased at the time of writing, and the remaining one is mentioned only in passing as a follower of 'the Lord', who may have been Jesus of Nazareth.
We know this case and aren't convinced by it.
Why not? The above comment makes sense when followed by a reason, after which it becomes pretty redundant. Sentences containing personal pronouns are barred by presidents of serious debate, remember. Who are 'we', anyway?

Quote:
The response that follows your's seems to be a stronger one.
On a different topic. How can it be stronger?

Quote:
As part of my adopting a provisional, tentative "mythicist" point of view, I considered this argument and felt it wasn't strong enough to carry the day. Not only does the alternative point make more sense within the context of Galatians, I believe if it were to mean "sibling of Jesus" it stands against the greater weight of Paul's writings
It does? Does Paul elsewhere believe that someone other than Jesus of Nazareth was Messiah? Or is it maintained that Paul elsewhere wrote that Jesus had no brothers and sisters, the offspring of Mary and Joseph? It is nowhere stated or implied in the Bible that this couple did not have other children beside Jesus.
sotto voce is offline  
Old 04-23-2012, 01:32 PM   #14
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2012
Location: Oregon
Posts: 738
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by sotto voce
Why not? The above comment makes sense when followed by a reason, after which it becomes pretty redundant. Sentences containing personal pronouns are barred by presidents of serious debate, remember. Who are 'we', anyway?

On a different topic. How can it be stronger?

It does? Does Paul elsewhere believe that someone other than Jesus of Nazareth was Messiah? Or is it maintained that Paul elsewhere wrote that Jesus had no brothers and sisters, the offspring of Mary and Joseph? It is nowhere stated or implied in the Bible that this couple did not have other children beside Jesus.
Where does Paul anywhere mention Jesus of Nazareth? Where does Paul say anywhere that his Jesus is the son of Mary and Joseph? In fact, we have no source for the claim that Joseph was Jesus' father.
Grog is offline  
 

Thread Tools Search this Thread
Search this Thread:

Advanced Search

Forum Jump


All times are GMT -8. The time now is 06:18 PM.

Top

This custom BB emulates vBulletin® Version 3.8.2
Copyright ©2000 - 2015, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.