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View Poll Results: What was the Original Ending of "Mark"
16:8 14 70.00%
16:9-20 3 15.00%
Lost 2 10.00%
"I Buried Paul" (On the Reverse Side) 0 0%
Whatever spin says it was 1 5.00%
Who cares? I Just Want to see if a Desperate Santorum says Jesus will be his Running Mate 0 0%
Voters: 20. You may not vote on this poll

 
 
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Old 02-29-2012, 08:22 PM   #21
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I am not convinced that Paul's little satellite churches had any significant Jewish membership at all. I think he distorted the LXX too much to have been credible to Jews.
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Old 02-29-2012, 08:28 PM   #22
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If Paul was indeed telling them to stop keeping The Sabbath, abandon the traditional Kosher laws, despise Judaism and The Temple, and start worshiping a dead/alive convicted criminal invisable zombie man as a god on Sunday's instead...
Yep, I do believe this 'Paul' would have had a certain credibility problem. :constern01:
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Old 02-29-2012, 08:55 PM   #23
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Of course, we have religious leaders now who radically distort scripture and doctrine and still manage to bring people with them. Look at David Koresh or Jim Jones - or Joseph Smith.
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Old 02-29-2012, 09:08 PM   #24
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And look at the reaction it caused, the thousands of diatribes, the millions of pages of contemporary commentary.

Where is a squeak of any similar ancient commentary, objection, or outrage at the defection of hundreds or thousands of synagogue attending practicing Jews to this strange new Zombie criminal god cult?
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Old 02-29-2012, 09:11 PM   #25
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Originally Posted by JoeWallack View Post
JW:
Regarding the original ending of the original Gospel "Mark", CBS (Christian Bible Scholarship) is not afraid to say that it was not 16:9-20. CBS continues to be amazed though that it was 16:8. The purpose of this Thread is to Inventory CBS that thinks/suspects the original ending was lost.

Before commenting on CBS' desire not to have 16:8 as the original ending of the original Gospel, I'll first present my original CBS witness for 16:8, not!(Ben Witherington):

Evidence of Mutilation and Deterioration— Mk. 16.

Quote:
Take a close look at the two Greek manuscripts in this post.

What I want you to concentrate on is the lower right hand corner of each of these pieces of papyri. What you should notice is the fraying, deterioration, and disappearance of this part of the manuscript. Contrast this with the left hand margin of these two papyri which are in tact. This pattern is regularly apparent to the observant student of Greek papyri. Why? Because in antiquity as in the 20th century with VHS tapes, people didn’t not always heed the advice— ‘please be kind and rewind’. Greek is a language read left to right, and so the extreme right of a document would often be left exposed to the elements. The results are readily apparent. One loses the end of the document.
JW:
This is his evidence. Following is his conclusion:

Quote:
it seems quite likely the ending of Mark was lost due to deterioration as with the papyri shown above.
Everyone is welcome to comment except for Harvey Dubish or sotto voce claiming that the above is evidence that Jesus was the logical conclusion of The Jewish Bible.



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The deterioration is irrelevant. 12 additional verses could NOT fit.

Quote:
Final note— Mk. 16.9-20 is probably too long anyway, to have fit at the end and bottom of the final column of Mark’s Gospel if it was written in a fair hand in majuscule, or even if it was written in minuscule Greek script.
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Old 03-01-2012, 04:21 AM   #26
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Originally Posted by sotto voce View Post
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How does Mark tell us anything about what the apostles thought? It records neither their words or their beliefs.
Why is Mark particularly relevant?
That's what I'm asking you.
So if Manes tells you that it's sunny outside, does that mean that nobody else is qualified to tell you that it is sunny outside? Or is Manes indispensable and irreplaceable?
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Old 03-01-2012, 09:24 AM   #27
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That's what I'm asking you.
So if Manes tells you that it's sunny outside, does that mean that nobody else is qualified to tell you that it is sunny outside? Or is Manes indispensable and irreplaceable?
I don't understand who "Manes" is supposed to be in your analogy. I haven't said that any source is indispensable, I just asked you to provide one for a particular claim.

If I haven't been clear, I'm saying the Gospel of Mark is not a reliable source of information about the words and beliefs of Jesus or the apostles.
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Old 03-01-2012, 09:39 AM   #28
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Originally Posted by sotto voce View Post
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Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic View Post
That's what I'm asking you.
So if Manes tells you that it's sunny outside, does that mean that nobody else is qualified to tell you that it is sunny outside? Or is Manes indispensable and irreplaceable?
I don't understand who "Manes" is supposed to be in your analogy.
Manes could be anyone who observes the sun shining.

Quote:
I just asked you to provide one for a particular claim.
Which was done.

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If I haven't been clear, I'm saying the Gospel of Mark is not a reliable source of information about the words and beliefs of Jesus or the apostles.
Then read the whole reply.
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Old 03-03-2012, 10:57 AM   #29
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I think the γὰρ ending is highly suggestive that something else followed it.
JW:
The Greek conjunctive here is normally placed between effect and cause and specifically this is the only time "Mark" places it at the end. Let's take a look at the offending verse:

http://biblos.com/mark/16-8.htm

Strong's Transliteration Greek English Morphology
2532 [e] kai καὶ And Conj
1831 [e] exelthousai ἐξελθοῦσαι having gone out, V-APA-NFP
5343 [e] ephygon ἔφυγον they fled V-AIA-3P
575 [e] apo ἀπὸ from Prep
3588 [e] tou τοῦ the Art-GNS
3419 [e] mnēmeiou μνημείου tomb. N-GNS
2192 [e] eichen εἶχεν possessed V-IIA-3S
1063 [e] gar γὰρ indeed Conj
846 [e] autas αὐτὰς them PPro-AF3P
5156 [e] tromos τρόμος trembling N-NMS
2532 [e] kai καὶ and Conj
1611 [e] ekstasis ἔκστασις amazement, N-NFS
2532 [e] kai καὶ and Conj
3762 [e] oudeni οὐδενὶ to none Adj-DMS
3762 [e] ouden οὐδὲν nothing Adj-ANS
3004 [e] eipan εἶπαν they spoke; V-AIA-3P
5399 [e] ephobounto ἐφοβοῦντο they were afraid V-IIM/P-3P
1063 [e] gar γάρ indeed. Conj

Note that the effect is first, "to none nothing they spoke", immediately followed by the cause, "they were afraid", which is immediately followed by the conjunction which should be translated above, "because/for".

The related question is whether this unusual order rises to the level of being ungrammatical, a question I've asked in the dedicated Thread:

Is the Gospel of Mark "ungrammatical" or Smooth, Sualvific and Deboanerges?

I've already provided evidence there that even if the placement is ungrammatical the usage is stylish/contrived because it is ungrammatical.

But back to the question, is it ungrammatical? In Dr. Carrier's Legendary related article:

Mark 16:9-20 as Forgery or Fabrication

Dr. Carrier indirectly refers to the issue here:

Assessment of Internal Evidence

Quote:
Arguments to the effect that Mark would not likely have ended his Gospel at verse 16:8 are of no consequence to this conclusion, as they in no way entail or even imply the LE was the ending lost (there are several contenders more plausible: see section 2.4).
I think Dr. Carrier should specifically address the issue because if the placement is ungrammatical than it is evidence for any alternative ending including the LE and because it is a popular argument.

Again, getting back to the question though, Wallace specifically points out the same placement in Genesis 18:15 (France finds an even better parallel with Genesis 45:3) and notes that Cox screws over Croy by finding over 1,500 ancient examples of sentences ending in "γάρ". This suggests the usage is unusual but not ungrammatical. It also suggests that such placement may have a nuanced meaning. I'll ask Dr. Carrier about it.



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Old 03-03-2012, 08:56 PM   #30
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to bernard,

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to la,
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Actually the Parable of the Vineyard is I believe taken as a prophecy of Jesus' death and here the prediction is that the Chief Priests and the Sanhedrin were the ones who disposed of the body. (Without burial, I might add!)
Yes, I tend to agree with that, but I won't vouch for specifically the Chiefs priests (even less the Sanhedrin, because there was no trial by them). Anyway workmen were hired by some authorities to take what was left of the body and throw it on the garbage pile outside Jerusalem (and possibly burn it with trash). Likely standard procedure for unclaimed bodies. That's what I think anyway.
I have no doubt the workmen would have been goyi'im or even the soldiers themselves for Jews would be too busy preparing for the Passover or celebrating it, depending on which gospel tradition you believe is accurate. But I think they would have buried the body secure enough so that animals couldn't get to it. Josephus (Jewish War 4.317) tells us that the Jewish people were so particular about dead bodies that they even buried the crucified / impaled the same day they died (or even the day they were hanged!). If the animals or worse, the birds, could have picked at the bodies, the Jewish religious authorities would have raised a big stink and complained.

And where would crucifixions have taken place? The traditional place for Golgotha would have been unlikely at the time; Herod the Great had the old lime quarry converted into a rose garden (hence Gennath or Garden Gate) and was probably surrounded by suburbs like the Pool of Bethesda was on the other side of town. My reasoning, based on the gMatthean and gLuke-Actean narrations of what happened to Judas Iscariot, was that Romans executed their criminals at Akeldama, the Field of Blood. Think about it. Executions back then were a bloody business.

But one strange coincidence is that the Holy Sepulchre has been identified as one part of a tomb complex that included the tombs of "Saints" Joseph of Arimathea and Nicodemus; and this complex has been determined by some archaeologists as a or the Court Tomb of the Sanhedrin for the specific purpose of dishonourable burial of criminals convicted of capital crimes under Jewish Law.

http://www.bibleinterp.com/articles/tombs358017.shtml

Quote:
Quote:
Although there is a slight disagreement from Christian circles: with matthew and the Christian theologians, the killing comes last, despite the language of Mark's Greek ἐξέβαλον: to cast forth, throw out; to banish, drive out, expel. When the word ἐξέβαλον comes after the slaying, it obviously means "to throw out."
Great observation! I am going to work on that. It looks "Matthew" did not want the parable to suggest Jesus' body was thrown out after his death, maybe because he had from gMark Joseph of A nicely depositing the corpse in the tomb. And if "Mark" originated the empty tomb passage, he would have worded the parable of the tenants differently.
Which in my opinion means that by the time "Matthew" wrote his gospel, he had the short ending gMark with the denouement of gMark 15:40 through 16:8 already included. Infact, the tomb scenes of gMatthew, gLuke and gJohn are themselves strong evidences of this denouement already in existence.
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