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10-13-2006, 11:55 AM | #51 | |
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There is historical mention of him within about 3 years after his death according to that informative page. Arabia is an isolated and undeveloped area at this time so it is not so surprising that records have not survived.
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10-13-2006, 12:57 PM | #52 |
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GRD to ASCH
*poof* |
10-13-2006, 01:13 PM | #53 | |
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10-13-2006, 02:10 PM | #54 | |
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10-13-2006, 03:26 PM | #55 |
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Malachi 151, maybe you could tell us what Mary and the names of other characters mean. This is very interesting.
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10-13-2006, 03:26 PM | #56 | ||||
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Crone is an authority, but I'd still need to see more info myself and get more detials on these supposed texts. And also, this gets back to the Jesus issue. If the Muhammad that is described by "real history" so far does not match the one described by the Kroan, can we say that the Muhammad of the Koran exsited? I find this highly suspect: Quote:
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Yikes, no I don't find this to be a credible source. |
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10-13-2006, 06:56 PM | #57 | |
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Jiri |
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10-13-2006, 07:24 PM | #58 |
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10-13-2006, 11:30 PM | #59 |
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Byzantine History
One difference between the historical Jesus and historical Mohammad is that we have historical events that his existence seems to be needed to explain, where with Jesus only the belief in his existence is necessary.
What I mean is that starting in around 635 or so, united Arab armies attacked both the exhausted Roman and Neo-Persian empires, serverely damaging the first and destroying the second. Previously the Arabs had not been united, and posed a limited threat. Hence we have to explain the new union. That this might lie in part due to some warlord using a combination of diplomacy and force to create the union is hardly unlikely, and is believed to have happened a number of times in history, such as with Chinggis Khan and Alexander the great. So, we can consider this postulated warlord the 'Historical Mohammad'. To what extent he resembles the deeds associated with him is then the question. Could he not have existed at all? Then we still have to explain the union of the Arabs. A council of various war leaders could have gathered, and perhaps decided to put away the sword amongst themselves in favour of the richer pickings of the weakend world superpowers, but even then it is likely that one would have become the chief, and again we have a historical Mohammad. As for his name appearing to be a title, I don't find it that convincing. There are two rather simple explanations. The first is that this 'title sounding' name really was a common or rare name, such as john or peter is among us. The second is like the name Augustus, or Chinggis Khan. Both are really titles, but have displaced their common names sufficiently that only historians are familiar with their real name. That a warlord might have a similar history is hardly unlikely, and of course we do not have a great deal of history from that area to discover what his real name was. I suppose what I mean is that in the case of the mystical Jesus only the belief in his existence requires explanation. In the case of Mohammad, both the belief in his existence and the recent union of the Arab armies needs to be explained. As a matter of interest, do we have any historical documents suggesting any other explanation for the Arab union other then due to the actions of a warlord? |
10-14-2006, 12:04 AM | #60 | ||||
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Even the most revisionistic theory I know of, namely Hagarism, assumed that Muhammed was a real historical figure. Quote:
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