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Old 03-18-2011, 09:47 AM   #71
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The “he got...” I have already explained what that proud statement means. He got the good news directly from god .There is no inconsistency, none at all.
He certainly said he got his gospel from god. You may believe that is true, but it certainly introduces a factor that has no possibility of being tested in any sense. It is therefore not helpful, unless you are only interested in working with belief statements.

In Paul's time the notion of receiving divine revelations, be they from the christian god, from Dionysus, Ganesh or whatever, was a commonly accepted event. That people said so and that they were believed is no sign of any reality. There are other possibilities for Paul. He was mistaken. He had a psychotic lapse. He had eaten too many magic mushrooms. It was a logical necessity given his limited scholarly options. He had a dream.

Given our modern scientific understanding of the world, most people these days require something a little more substantial than a dude saying he had a revelation before they believe the person.
The road to Damascus is no importance at all. It is not under discussion.

Paul was teaching in 1 Cor 15:3. Oral history it is what the text describes.
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Old 03-18-2011, 09:56 AM   #72
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Paul was teaching in 1 Cor 15:3. Oral history it is what the text describes.
This is certainly not correct. The text specifically talks of γραφαι, ie those things that are written.
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Old 03-18-2011, 10:03 AM   #73
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Paul was teaching in 1 Cor 15:3. Oral history it is what the text describes.
This is certainly not correct. The text specifically talks of γραφαι, ie those things that are written.
Yes, I have no problem with that.

He must have spoken to people, speeches, discussions, ...
He travelled widely and visited many different churches repeating what was already written [ a very early written gospel] and added his explanations ...
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Old 03-18-2011, 10:23 AM   #74
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This is certainly not correct. The text specifically talks of γραφαι, ie those things that are written.
Yes, I have no problem with that.
I understand that, but you have to invent a scenario which allows that despite the fact that there is almost no gospel material in Paul's letters anywhere, which is an unexplainable dichotomy.

A simpler explanation is that he was referring to the Jewish literature as scripture and found indications which he believed, like many after him, were glimpses of the messiah.

Simpler, while covering all stops, is more probable.

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He must have spoken to people, speeches, discussions, ...
He travelled widely and visited many different churches repeating what was already written [ a very early written gospel] and added his explanations ...
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Old 03-18-2011, 10:35 AM   #75
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Yes, I have no problem with that.
I understand that, but you have to invent a scenario which allows that despite the fact that there is almost no gospel material in Paul's letters anywhere, which is an unexplainable dichotomy.

A simpler explanation is that he was referring to the Jewish literature as scripture and found indications which he believed, like many after him, were glimpses of the messiah.

Simpler, while covering all stops, is more probable.

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He must have spoken to people, speeches, discussions, ...
He travelled widely and visited many different churches repeating what was already written [ a very early written gospel] and added his explanations ...
Yes, no problem with that.
He was a very active preacher and he must have said many things in his long career.
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Old 03-18-2011, 10:50 AM   #76
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spin,

I agree with everything you are saying but ...

As previously mentioned, the Marcionites certainly DID believe that the apostle (a) wrote a gospel (and possibly two cf. 1 Cor 2.1 - 9, 3.10) and (b) that the epistles were a commentary on that text(s) that he wrote.

Nevertheless, the Catholic version of the Apostolikon (the so-called Pauline letters) likely established late second century CE understands that 'Paul' did NOT have a gospel. When the apostle says 'my gospel' and 'according to my gospel' the Catholics explained this as somehow referencing an oral teaching etc. At the same time there was a written gospel written by a disciple. I suspect that originally 'John' was that disciple (cf. Muratorian canon and various things that Irenaeus says about Polycarp). Then Irenaeus introduced 'Luke' as the gospel of Paul but only by changing the original Acts of the Apostles (which seems to have had John Mark as the disciple who holds both sides of the Church together).

Some things to consider - Tatian and those who used the Diatessaron couldn't have had the same conception as the Catholics about which gospel 'according to Paul' - i.e. Luke. They had a Diatessaronic gospel followed by the Apostolikon (minus some or all of the Pastorals). When you think about this, there must have been some identification of 'the Gospel of Condord' or whatever the hell this text was called, and the apostle. Maybe it wasn't specifically Marcionite. I suspect that a disciple of the apostle might have been understood to have written the text. Probably John but definitely not Luke would have been the author of 'the gospel.'

Next thing. There are a number of places where Church Fathers, heretics or scholars see references to the written gospel in the Apostolikon. Romans seems to have a few from memory. The key however is that most of the gospel references have been removed from the canonical gospels. Here's an example from Stromata 3.

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In the Epistle to the Romans he quotes the gospel saying "Thou shalt not lust" as if it were from the law, knowing that it is the one Father who is preached by the law and the prophets. For he says: "What shall we say? Is the law sin? God forbid. I had not known sin except through the law; and I had not known lust unless the law had said, Thou shalt not lust." Even if the heretics who are opposed to the Creator suppose that in the next sentence Paul was speaking against him when he says, "I know that in me, that is in my flesh, there dwells no good thing," yet let them read what precedes and follows this. For before it he says, "But sin which dwells in me," which explains why it was appropriate for him to say, "in my flesh dwells no good thing."

In what follows he continues, "But if I do that which I do not wish to do, it is no longer I that do it, but sin which dwells in me," which being at war with the law of God and "of my mind," he says, "makes me captive by the law of sin which is in my members. O wretched man that I am, who shall deliver me from this body of death." And again (for he does not be- come in the least weary of being helpful) he does not hesitate to add, "For the law of the Spirit has set me free from the law of sin and death," since by his Son "God condemned sin in the flesh that the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us who walk not after the flesh but after the Spirit." In addition to this he makes the point still clearer by saying emphatically, "The body is dead because of sin," indicating that if it is not the temple, it is still the tomb of the soul. For when it is dedicated to God, he adds, "the spirit of him who raised Jesus from the dead dwells in you, who shall also make alive your mortal bodies through his Spirit dwelling in you."

Again his remarks are directed against libertines when he continues as follows: "The mind of the flesh is death because those who live according to the flesh mind the things of the flesh, and the mind of the flesh is enmity against God. For it is not subject to the law of God. Those who are in the flesh cannot please God," not in the sense in which some teach, but in the sense which we have already explained. Then by contrast to this he says to the Church: "But you are not in the flesh but in the spirit, if the Spirit of God dwells in you. If any man has not Christ's Spirit, he is none of his. But if Christ be in you, the body is dead because of sin, the Spirit is life because of righteousness. So then, brethren, we are under an obligation, not to the flesh to live after the flesh. If you live after the flesh you shall die. But if by the Spirit you mortify the deeds of the body, you shall live. For all who are led by the Spirit of God are sons of God." And against the "nobility of birth" and the "freedom" abominably taught by the heretics who make a boast of their licentiousness, he goes on to say: "You have not received the spirit of bondage that you should again be in fear, but you have received the spirit of sonship by which we cry, Abba, Father." That is, we have received the Spirit for this purpose, that we may know him to whom we pray, the true Father, the only Father of all that is, him who like a father educates us for salvation and destroys fear. [Clement Strom. 3.76 - 78]
This is NOT a garbled reference to Matthew 5:27, 28. Commentators are so fucking lazy. They just take a convenient answer to get back to their presuppositions. This was an addition to Mark 10:17 - 31 held in common with the Marcionites and similar to the structure of the earliest citations of the Diatessaron (Aphrahat). Clement cites this gospel reference at least 6 times in his works (probably more). It was crucial to the Carpocratian interpretation of the passage.

There are many other examples. The point still however is that 'scriptures' here certainly does not mean 'canonical gospels.' Nevertheless, I don't think we can fairly dismiss the Marcionite interpretation of the NT. The Catholics were both referees and players in the match. They undoubtedly arranged the material in the canon to 'disprove' their opponents and this undoubtedly meant removing almost all reference to the original gospel. The apostle's reference to LGM 1 (i.e. the first addition to 'Secret Mark') is another example of the editing process. But that's another story ...
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Old 03-18-2011, 11:05 AM   #77
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aa

It must be wonderful to live life without the ability to discern evidence with critical reasoning capacities. If you received one of those emails from Nigeria telling you to help them keep their money by giving them your bank account information, are you going to believe them?
You use the VERY SAME CHURCH WRITINGS for your MARCION.

If you KNOW that the Church writings are like E-MAILS from NIGERIA why are you ATTEMPTING to use them to get information about Marcion?

When I show you that the Church claimed "Paul" was AWARE of gLuke it is so that you WILL KNOW that the CHURCH WRITINGS ARE INDEED LIKE E-MAILS from NIGERIA and that you CANNOT use them for historical data on Marcion.

The Church has EXPOSED the FRAUD call "PAUL" as soon as they claimed he was AWARE of gLuke and that "PAUL" died under NERO.

It has been deduced that gLuke was written AFTER "PAUL" was supposed to be dead. And the first mention of gLuke is about ONE HUNDRED YEARS after the supposed death of "PAUL" which appears to be confirmed by the writings of Justin Martyr.

Look at "Church History" 3.4.8 and 2.25.5

"Church History" 2.25.5.
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....... It is, therefore, recorded that Paul was beheaded in Rome itself, and that Peter likewise was crucified under Nero....
"Church History" 3.4.8.
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And they say that Paul meant to refer to Luke's Gospel wherever...... he used the words, according to my Gospel.
I use the Church writings to EXPOSE FRAUDS like "Paul".

You use them for the history of Marcion.

If you see something about Marcion in the Church writings would YOU BELIEVE it?

I would not.

I know the Church writings are like fraudulent E-MAILS from NIGERIA.
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Old 03-18-2011, 11:15 AM   #78
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I agree with everything you are saying but ...
...but the lag time between the emergence of the notion of Paul set apart for the gospel along with his proclamation of it and the reification of the notion of the gospel as a written document must be considered.
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Old 03-18-2011, 11:25 AM   #79
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You use the VERY SAME CHURCH WRITINGS for your MARCION.
Yes but I don't believe that they are pristine. There was a NT canon held by the Marcionites. It became altered by the Catholics (and expanded). That collection eventually became our collection. I don't like the situation but that's the reality.

You sound like the kind of guy that believes it when the escort tells him that your different than the other customers. She really likes you.
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Old 03-18-2011, 11:27 AM   #80
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...but the lag time between the emergence of the notion of Paul set apart for the gospel along with his proclamation of it and the reification of the notion of the gospel as a written document must be considered.
Yes but that is offset by the fact that there is no Catholic interpretation of the Apostolikon before Marcion. There is a truth but it might be unknowable or at least the kind of certainty we'd like to have might be impossible to attain.
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