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05-11-2006, 12:33 AM | #221 |
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CS Lewis - Myth became Fact - seems to be a mythicist! The becoming fact bit is the very human struggle between our animal and existential parts. CS Lewis doesn't seem to have understood Jung, but I love having CS Lewis in the mythicist camp, which as an English lit prof - makes a lot more sense!
What about a new category - closet mythicist? |
05-11-2006, 01:09 AM | #222 | |
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05-11-2006, 02:37 AM | #223 |
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Thinking about my turning point, literature has been very important.
http://www.bbc.co.uk/radio4/history/...nourtime.shtml today discussed faeries. These are creatures that are between the gods and men, isn't Christ seen as a faerie from some perspectives? Did you know Disney's Tinkerbell was modelled on Marilyn Monroe? |
05-11-2006, 09:14 AM | #224 | ||
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05-11-2006, 09:24 AM | #225 | |
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The Bultmannian interpretation of the NT in general was largely buried by the publication of the DSS, coupled with increased efforts to understand first century Judaism for it's own sake, rather than as a foil to Christianity. Regards, Rick Sumner |
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05-11-2006, 02:03 PM | #226 | |
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Obviously, if Paul knew anything about a man called Jesus or any siblings he might have had, he must have gotten such knowledge independently of the gospels, since they did not exist in his lifetime. Some of the stories on which the gospels were based might have been circulating in Paul's lifetime. In fact, they must have been, if we assume Jesus' historicity. But if he don't assume it, then Paul might or might not have heard such stories. As evidence that he did hear them, an ambiguous throwaway line like "brother of the lord" is entirely too weak. Without the question-begging assumption of historicity, it cannot be cogently argued that the only reasonable construal of that line is "male sibling of Jesus of Nazareth." |
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05-11-2006, 02:08 PM | #227 | |
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05-11-2006, 02:24 PM | #228 | |
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Here is my hypothesis. When Paul referred to James as "brother of the lord," he was using an honorific that precise meaning of which is no longer known but would have been known to Paul's readers. I think it likely that the honorific was applied to several people besides James, but I don't think I need to assume that it was. Perhaps only one person at a time could be called that, but it doesn't matter for my hypothesis. Years later, when the gospel stories started circulating widely among Christians, many (at first not all) Christians supposed that they were about a a real man, and at least some of those Christians would have supposed that Paul's Christ Jesus was that man. It would then have been natural for them infer that Paul's reference was to the same James identified in the gospels as one of Jesus' siblings. Insofar as it goes, that looks pretty parsimonious to me. There might be all manner of other problems with mythicism. There might be other very good evidence for Jesus' historicity. But I cannot for the life of me see "brother of the lord" as a killer argument for Jesus' real existence. If that is the best argument that historicists can muster, their case is hopeless. |
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05-11-2006, 02:49 PM | #229 | |
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The fact is that the phrase "brother of the Lord" is evidence for the historicity of Christ, and your hypothesis is simply an attempt to shore up a damaged position. I don't see what you want. Do you want a world free of Christ? Why? Why such strenous effort to disprove this man's existence? |
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05-11-2006, 03:48 PM | #230 | |
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