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Old 11-25-2010, 11:38 PM   #81
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Originally Posted by stephan huller View Post
Since we are discussing whether or not there is any evidence for your theory about the creation of the gospels in the fourth century from scratch, you have already concede that there is no evidence to support your claims. You haven't produced any smoking gun, any reason to support this untenable position.
All of this is off topic. The OP topic is not about the authorship of books the NT canon, but the authorship of the books of the NT non canonical collection. You dont get it do you?


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You, Pete, were the one who originally put forward the claim that the C 14 dates for the Gospel of Judas supported your claims that everything Christian was fabricated at the time of Nicaea.
The OP Claim was not this at all. The claim was that C 14 dating result for the Gospel of Judas supports the hypothesis that all the non canonical books were authored at the time of Nicaea. Wake up.

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You always make this absurd argument that the surviving documents in our possession are all the originals of those manuscripts. This is absolutely impossible. There is no likelihood of that being true.

By this utterly absurd logic it follows that there were never ever any original manuscripts. Everything is a copy from a transcendental non existent original. What sort of a world do you live in?


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The Gospel of Thomas is certainly not dated to the period you assign it.

For one there are a number of older manuscripts which preserve its contents to the third century:

•Oxyrhynchus Papyrus 654
Preserves fragments of Prologue+Sayings 1-7
Greek; middle/late third century
•Oxyrhynchus Papyrus 1
Preserves most of Sayings 26-30+77b, 31-33
Greek; late second/early third century
•Oxyhrynchus Papyrus 655
Preserves fragments of Sayings 24, 36-39
Greek; third century

and even these are not the originals of the document. A date of the late second century is a conservative estimate. One could make a strong case for an even earlier date.

There is simply too much evidence for you to honestly ignore. You only do so because you are a partisan and propagandist rather than a true scholar.

Have you read post # 21 yet?
I am aware of these greek papyri.
And how they have been dated.
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Old 11-26-2010, 12:10 AM   #82
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The claim was that C 14 dating result for the Gospel of Judas supports the hypothesis that all the non canonical books were authored at the time of Nicaea
But this hasn't been demonstrated or rather it has been put foward in a manner which is totally illogical and would be accepted by no one who knew what they were talking about. Your arguments are beyond flawed. Their are so infuriatingly irrational that it actually causes the rest of us who know what we are talking about to get angry at you for formulating misleading arguments.

You can't get from C 14 dating of the Gospel of Judas to anything resembling an argument for Nicaean authorship. You just can't. It is very unlikely that we have discovered the original Gospel of Judas. It was certainly originally written in Greek and so our surviving Coptic comes from something which existed BEFORE the range of dates.

All the other arguments then which you develop aren't worth considering because this is a non-starter.

Stop wasting your time. Yet another stupid, unworkable argument.
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Old 11-26-2010, 12:14 AM   #83
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By this utterly absurd logic it follows that there were never ever any original manuscripts. Everything is a copy from a transcendental non existent original. What sort of a world do you live in?
I don't know what to say about this bit of twisted logic. How many published copies of the Bible do you think there have been. And yet none of these published works represents the 'original' copy of any manuscript of any one of the books that make up that collection.

We will never find the original Book of Daniel. We will never find the original Torah. We will likely never find the original of any canonical book.

Why is it that you are so convinced that every non-canonical book that we possess IS the original autograph? This is nothing short of demented.
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Old 11-26-2010, 12:22 AM   #84
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Originally Posted by mountainman View Post
...

All of this is off topic. The OP topic is not about the authorship of books the NT canon, but the authorship of the books of the NT non canonical collection. ....
But your arguments for a late dating of the noncanonical texts are not at all persuasive, and it appears that your motive is to support your theory that Constantine invented Christianity by pushing the gnostic gospels into the fourth century.
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Old 11-26-2010, 03:20 AM   #85
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Originally Posted by stephan huller View Post
Quote:
The claim was that C 14 dating result for the Gospel of Judas supports the hypothesis that all the non canonical books were authored at the time of Nicaea
Your arguments are beyond flawed. Their are so infuriatingly irrational that it actually causes the rest of us who know what we are talking about to get angry at you for formulating misleading arguments.

You can't get from C 14 dating of the Gospel of Judas to anything resembling an argument for Nicaean authorship. You just can't.
Look closely at the upper Error Bound on gJudas




The C14 dating published for gJudas has an upper bound of 340 CE. You should be able to see this clearly on the above graph, which also shows the date of Nicaea. Last time I looked, this date was 15 years after Nicaea. What's your problem with this stephan. Spin is out of his depth, there is nothing wrong with this logic. If there is, I challenge someone to identify the problem.


Quote:
It is very unlikely that we have discovered the original Gospel of Judas.

I agree.


Quote:
It was certainly originally written in Greek and so our surviving Coptic comes from something which existed BEFORE the range of dates.
The C14 result suggests for the Coptic translation (of a presumed Greek original) an upper bound of 340 CE. This still leaves a period of 15 years between the years of 325 CE and 340 CE for the Greek original to have been authored, and this is precisely what I conjecture to have happened.

There are 4 steps:

(1) 324/325 CE: Constantine presents the NT Canon to Alexandria

(2) 326 CE: As a result of (1), The Alexandrian Greeks (Graeco-Egypto-Romans) commenced to lampoon and satirize the books of Constantine's NT Canon, by authoring the "far out Gnostic Gospels and Acts, etc" in Greek, to be performed in Greek, in the Alexandrian theatres of the disbelievers. (Did Jesus kiss Mary? Did Peter make a camel pass through the eye of a needle? Do the apostles travel around on "bright clouds"? Did Paul baptize a talking lion in the wilderness? Does Jesus heal by the power of Asclepius? On and on it goes ....)

(3) 326 CE: As a result of (2) Constantine immediately prohibited these non canonical books, a prohibition which was to last for centuries and centuries. Constantine engaged the army to search out and destroy prohibited books. Their preservation became perilous. They were too easily identifiable in Greek --- translations to Syriac and Coptic may have been considered earlier or later.

(4) 327 to 340 CE: As a result of (3) the Alexandrian Greeks (and probably the entire Alexandrian Pagan priesthood) follow Pachomius to the desert in droves to the "ascetic life" hundreds of miles "out of town" at Nag Hammadi, and collaborate to engage in the publication of a series of codices in Coptic, which purposefully preserves some of these prohibited and heretical Gnostic texts, the Nag Hammadi Codices.





Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto
But your arguments for a late dating of the noncanonical texts are not at all persuasive,
I summarised the detail presentation of my arguments at post #21
(which still remains unaddressed by any of my detractors)
to a series of 4 claims at post #50, where I rated them and discussed them.
(which also still remain unaddressed by any of my detractors)


These claims were:
Claim (1): The manuscript evidence via the Manuscript Tradition supports the theory.

Claim (2): The scientific evidence via the C14 dating tests supports the theory.

Claim (3): The literary evidence via the “Church Fathers & Heresiologists” is rejected by the theory.

Claim (4): The paleographical evidence via dating of Greek papyri fragments is rejected by the theory.
Please address these 4 claims. Which of these do you see as unpersuasive and for what reason?


Quote:
and it appears that your motive is to support your theory that Constantine invented Christianity by pushing the gnostic gospels into the fourth century.
How many times do I have to repeat that the above arguments for the late dating of the gnostic gospels are derived from first principles and with references to the sources, and in no way, shape or form, rely on the authenticity of the new testament canon itself. How many times do I have to say that for the purposes of defending the hypothesis or theory that the gnostic gospels are post Nicaean, I am happy to allow the canonical gospels to be around in the time of Diocletian.


DISCLAIMER:

For the sake of the OP,
Bullneck did not invent Christianity



For the sake of the OP, we may assume that Constantine did not invent Christianity, because it existed in the rule of Diocletian, and he persecuted the Christians because of the threat he perceived to his favorite divinities of Hercules and Asclepius, from the holy books of these Underground Christians - particularly their very powerful "tetrarchy of gospels". Diocletian may have felt threatened by the leadership of the four gospel authors, and the piety of the bishops. As far as the OP goeth, Constantine did not invent Jesus, but embraced an extant cult.


Get it? Cool with that?

Do I need to repeat it again each time I post on this thread?
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Old 11-26-2010, 04:37 AM   #86
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Originally Posted by mountainman View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by stephan huller View Post

Your arguments are beyond flawed. Their are so infuriatingly irrational that it actually causes the rest of us who know what we are talking about to get angry at you for formulating misleading arguments.

You can't get from C 14 dating of the Gospel of Judas to anything resembling an argument for Nicaean authorship. You just can't.
Look closely at the upper Error Bound on gJudas




The C14 dating published for gJudas has an upper bound of 340 CE. You should be able to see this clearly on the above graph, which also shows the date of Nicaea. Last time I looked, this date was 15 years after Nicaea. What's your problem with this stephan. Spin is out of his depth, there is nothing wrong with this logic. If there is, I challenge someone to identify the problem.





I agree.




The C14 result suggests for the Coptic translation (of a presumed Greek original) an upper bound of 340 CE. This still leaves a period of 15 years between the years of 325 CE and 340 CE for the Greek original to have been authored, and this is precisely what I conjecture to have happened.

There are 4 steps:

(1) 324/325 CE: Constantine presents the NT Canon to Alexandria

(2) 326 CE: As a result of (1), The Alexandrian Greeks (Graeco-Egypto-Romans) commenced to lampoon and satirize the books of Constantine's NT Canon, by authoring the "far out Gnostic Gospels and Acts, etc" in Greek, to be performed in Greek, in the Alexandrian theatres of the disbelievers. (Did Jesus kiss Mary? Did Peter make a camel pass through the eye of a needle? Do the apostles travel around on "bright clouds"? Did Paul baptize a talking lion in the wilderness? Does Jesus heal by the power of Asclepius? On and on it goes ....)

(3) 326 CE: As a result of (2) Constantine immediately prohibited these non canonical books, a prohibition which was to last for centuries and centuries. Constantine engaged the army to search out and destroy prohibited books. Their preservation became perilous. They were too easily identifiable in Greek --- translations to Syriac and Coptic may have been considered earlier or later.

(4) 327 to 340 CE: As a result of (3) the Alexandrian Greeks (and probably the entire Alexandrian Pagan priesthood) follow Pachomius to the desert in droves to the "ascetic life" hundreds of miles "out of town" at Nag Hammadi, and collaborate to engage in the publication of a series of codices in Coptic, which purposefully preserves some of these prohibited and heretical Gnostic texts, the Nag Hammadi Codices.







I summarised the detail presentation of my arguments at post #21
(which still remains unaddressed by any of my detractors)
to a series of 4 claims at post #50, where I rated them and discussed them.
(which also still remain unaddressed by any of my detractors)


These claims were:
Claim (1): The manuscript evidence via the Manuscript Tradition supports the theory.

Claim (2): The scientific evidence via the C14 dating tests supports the theory.

Claim (3): The literary evidence via the “Church Fathers & Heresiologists” is rejected by the theory.

Claim (4): The paleographical evidence via dating of Greek papyri fragments is rejected by the theory.
Please address these 4 claims. Which of these do you see as unpersuasive and for what reason?


Quote:
and it appears that your motive is to support your theory that Constantine invented Christianity by pushing the gnostic gospels into the fourth century.
How many times do I have to repeat that the above arguments for the late dating of the gnostic gospels are derived from first principles and with references to the sources, and in no way, shape or form, rely on the authenticity of the new testament canon itself. How many times do I have to say that for the purposes of defending the hypothesis or theory that the gnostic gospels are post Nicaean, I am happy to allow the canonical gospels to be around in the time of Diocletian.


DISCLAIMER:

For the sake of the OP,
Bullneck did not invent Christianity



For the sake of the OP, we may assume that Constantine did not invent Christianity, because it existed in the rule of Diocletian, and he persecuted the Christians because of the threat he perceived to his favorite divinities of Hercules and Asclepius, from the holy books of these Underground Christians - particularly their very powerful "tetrarchy of gospels". Diocletian may have felt threatened by the leadership of the four gospel authors, and the piety of the bishops. As far as the OP goeth, Constantine did not invent Jesus, but embraced an extant cult.


Get it? Cool with that?

Do I need to repeat it again each time I post on this thread?
Probably because they are using the usual method of cherry picking what you say and avoiding the questions that you really want to address. They cannot address them to their satisfaction so they beat around the bush for ever and a day - it is quite funny to watch.
These forums get quite boring after a while because everyone is in their own corner sniping away at their "enemies".
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Old 11-26-2010, 05:23 AM   #87
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Probably because they are using the usual method of cherry picking what you say and avoiding the questions that you really want to address. They cannot address them to their satisfaction so they beat around the bush for ever and a day - it is quite funny to watch.
These forums get quite boring after a while because everyone is in their own corner sniping away at their "enemies".
Let's face it, if you really want to follow the folly of mountainman, it's no skin of my nose. This theory has been falsified by the Dura Europos data. He is manipulating data in a fraudulent manner, combining two C14 dates that have nothing to do with each other in order to cover up the fact that the first is absolutely no help to him and in all probability is a liability. The curves themselves have nothing to do with C14 data. He simply made them up based on the description of 280 +/- 60 years and 348 +/- 60. They bear no resemblance to carbondating curves. (I've tried to find a scientific analysis of these data, but none have appeared on the web.) And the date 348 CE is a red herring when analyzing the Gospel of Judas. Buyer beware.

He by necessity has to deny all the palaeographical data of all the documents from Oxyrhynchus and Tebtunis which falsified his theory immediately with papyri dated in the 2nd and 3rd centuries. He has to extend his conspiracy theory over three languages, so that Latin and Syriac Aramaic get covered. He explains away the various heresies as fabrications that serve almost no possible purpose.

Arius, he has to redefine away from what the evidence indicates, ie that he was an Alexandrian christian priest who disagreed with his bishop and caused a stink well before the Council of Nicaea. The letter written by Arius to Eusebius of Nicomedia has to be repudiated somehow otherwise this crock of shit is falsified again.

Now we're seeing Mani being revised. Thankfully he's given up trying to ring rubbish from Julian's "Against the Galileans" for Julian clearly believes that Paul and Jesus were real.

When Lactantius launches into a nasty attack against the persecutions of the christians under Diocletian and Galerius, once again mountainman has to deny that there were any persecutions, otherwise yet again his tomfoolery is shown to be poppycock. You'd think that if Lactantius were fabricating it from Trier, people who were alive those few years ago would know that it was rubbish.

Lucian of Samosata mentions christians in four separate paragraphs of his Passing of Peregrinus in unfriendly light, without giving anything useful to make one think christians put the data there. Lucian was writing circa 165 CE.

The general argument to support the mountainman folly is non-existent. Nothing at all props it up (other than mountainman's desires). It doesn't explain anything. It requires modification whenever you look at another problematical area.

Let's see what he can do with this text POxy_3035: it's a warrant internally dated in 256 CE to arrest "Petosarapin of Horus a Christian". We can imagine, "it was a fake planted by Eusebius to trick the people of Oxyrhynchus."

Seriously, if you want to go down with this albatross, go ahead. You, like the proverbial horse, have been led to water, but no-one can make you drink.

And for god's sake do not cite the whole of his rubbish. Once is bad enough.


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Old 11-26-2010, 07:03 AM   #88
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And the joke is that they don't even believe in his theories (except avi of course who is always confessing he is ignorant, always 'learning,' and always certain Pete is correct' all at the same time in every conversation).

What is the motivation of the other 'defenders of the faith'? Apparently Pete's raising of many 'new questions' about how Christianity is bullshit - the weakest of arguments, the most twisted of rationales - but ever new 'problems,' all of this is worthwhile because the end result is the mocking of the evil religion of Christianity.

This week it is Christianity is 'mocked' in red, next week it is 'ridiculed' in blue. They don't want to think, they don't want to learn anything. They don't even accept mountainman's whole theory (how you can accept PART of a Christianity was wholly invented from scratch in the fourth century is beyond me). But again the search for truth doesn't matters for these people - it is the sport of mocking they enjoy. They see us now engaging in the very thing they want this forum to be about only directed against the big, bad evil church. They can't even conceive of the idea of actually trying to understand something objectively and dispassionately. That would take too much effort, that would take too much time - besides how much time do you want to spend analyzing something that is 'as we all know' is complete bullshit anyway?
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Old 11-26-2010, 08:54 AM   #89
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Originally Posted by mountainman View Post
...
The C14 result suggests for the Coptic translation (of a presumed Greek original) an upper bound of 340 CE. This still leaves a period of 15 years between the years of 325 CE and 340 CE for the Greek original to have been authored, and this is precisely what I conjecture to have happened. ...
In other words, you think that if no one can disprove your theory at the 99% level of probability, that you win. That's not how it works.


Quote:
I summarised the detail presentation of my arguments at post #21
(which still remains unaddressed by any of my detractors)
to a series of 4 claims at post #50, where I rated them and discussed them.
(which also still remain unaddressed by any of my detractors)


These claims were:

Claim (1): The manuscript evidence via the Manuscript Tradition supports the theory.
Probably no one has addressed this because it doesn't make any sense. It appears to be a variant of your C14 dating argument, which no one supports,

Quote:
Claim (2): The scientific evidence via the C14 dating tests supports the theory.
Again, "fail to definitively disprove" does not equal "support."

Quote:
Claim (3): The literary evidence via the “Church Fathers & Heresiologists” is rejected by the theory.
This means that since the literary evidence does not support your theory, you reject it as later forgery. You have given no good reason. You didn't even realize that these heresiologists are all Christian apologists.

Quote:
Claim (4): The paleographical evidence via dating of Greek papyri fragments is rejected by the theory.
Again, since paleography does not support your theory, you reject it.

How does this support your theory?

Quote:
Quote:
and it appears that your motive is to support your theory that Constantine invented Christianity by pushing the gnostic gospels into the fourth century.
How many times do I have to repeat that the above arguments for the late dating of the gnostic gospels are derived from first principles and with references to the sources, and in no way, shape or form, rely on the authenticity of the new testament canon itself. How many times do I have to say that for the purposes of defending the hypothesis or theory that the gnostic gospels are post Nicaean, I am happy to allow the canonical gospels to be around in the time of Diocletian.
So you claim that Christianity was a unified religion around Diocletian, and no Christian ever held a heretical view until after Constantine? This is even less persuasive than your main argument.


Quote:
...
Do I need to repeat it again each time I post on this thread?
If you keep repeating the same bad arguments again and again without reacting to your critics, I will just close this thread.
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Old 11-26-2010, 10:15 AM   #90
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Originally Posted by spin
When the blind lead the blind, the result is inevitable. But once you're in the hole, you don't have to think China is your escape route.
hmm...

Quote:
Originally Posted by John Rohsenow

zhi (4) zhe (3) kan (4) huo (3)
yu (2) zhe (3) kan (4) guo (1)
Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
You, like the proverbial horse, have been led to water, but no-one can make you drink.
except that it is an ox, not a horse:

Quote:
niu (2) bu (4) he (1) shui (3)
nan (2) an (4) jiao (1)
avi
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