FRDB Archives

Freethought & Rationalism Archive

The archives are read only.


Go Back   FRDB Archives > Archives > Religion (Closed) > Biblical Criticism & History
Welcome, Peter Kirby.
You last visited: Yesterday at 03:12 PM

 
 
Thread Tools Search this Thread
Old 03-05-2007, 09:58 PM   #81
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2004
Location: Dallas, TX
Posts: 11,525
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Vinnie View Post
We have virtually no source documents (original) from this area and time period IIRC. Copies of copies. All hearsay documents of hearsay according to some round here.
Before we get too far discussing whether this source or that is hearsay, does't it make sense to first try to establish whether the documents being discussed were even originally intended to be historical or biographical in nature!?

On what authority do we declare that the Gospels were intended as historical works? It seems pointless to discuss their fidelity without first establishing the author(s)' intent.

We don't seem to fret about whether or not the Odyssey is hearsay.
spamandham is offline  
Old 03-06-2007, 02:22 AM   #82
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2006
Location: Falls Creek, Oz.
Posts: 11,192
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin View Post
Umm, M.Antonius?
Typo. Should be M. Antoninus -- aka Marcus Aurelius.

I was literally horrified to find a christian reference in "Meditations"
particularly because I was not forewarned in (my reading of)
the literature prior to the time I read this work.

Do you have any idea who first noticed this reference in
"Meditations"; who was first to quote it after c.167, as
I cannot find Eusebius quoting it anywhere.
mountainman is offline  
Old 03-06-2007, 02:38 AM   #83
Banned
 
Join Date: Apr 2006
Location: Palm Springs, California
Posts: 10,955
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by S.C.Carlson View Post
I was thinking about the use of texts other than to prove the truth of the matter being asserted (e.g., certain lexicographical, dialectal, or stylistic studies). In other words, hearsay for some purposes but not necessarily for others.

Stephen
Good point. At least somebody around here actually understands the hearsay rule and its complexities. I don't know how many times I've been in court and had to explain it to the judge. It just doesn't reduce to: somebody claims somebody else said something.
Gamera is offline  
Old 03-06-2007, 02:50 AM   #84
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2006
Location: Falls Creek, Oz.
Posts: 11,192
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Vinnie View Post
We have no reason to supoose Eusebius made this up and also made up a quote and attributed it to Irenaeus, only to disagree with his fabricated assessment of Papias. Until someone here can come up with a solid reason and stop merely poisoning the well, there is no point in discussing it.
One reason that Eusebius could have fabricated a complex mass,
almost an army, of conflicting texts is that he was coerced by a
malevolent soon-to-be-supreme imperial mafia thug, dictator and
emminent "christian theologian and proselyter" - Constantine.

In the same manner that those in possession of the writings of
the emminent Eastern academic Porphyry, and/or of that "Porphyrian"
Arius, were coerced and threatened with death - by beheading.

Quote:
Don't forget that he referenced his readers to read Papias' non-existent works themselves (for those trully interested.."). Is this supposed to be taken as a clever bit of "hiding the lie"?
IMO Eusubius thought that he was a clever man, because of the very
very unique position that he found himself in, about the time that
Constantine had Maxentius' head found in the Tiber, c312 CE.

Thirteen years down the track, at the COuncil of Nicaea, he would
address the newly conquered Eastern regime, at the right hand of
Constantine.

Papias was just another Eusebian profile, and IMO probably had his
existence in the new fourth century technology, another reason
why Eusebius thought he was clever. Eusebius appears to have
inherited the "multi-column" concordance concept from Origen,
or earlier --- this in anyone's book is a primitive database.

By means of a multiple column notage technology, Eusebius was
not only able to keep track of parallel histories (Chronicon), but
also (IMO) multiple fraudulent "prenicene christian" profiles, and
their stories, whether they had small minds like Papias, or giant
minds like Hegesippus, or no minds at all, like the heretics, etc
etc ...
mountainman is offline  
Old 03-06-2007, 03:34 AM   #85
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2006
Location: Falls Creek, Oz.
Posts: 11,192
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Gamera View Post
Good point. At least somebody around here actually understands the hearsay rule and its complexities. I don't know how many times I've been in court and had to explain it to the judge.
This admission Gamera says little for the courts you've been in.
mountainman is offline  
Old 03-06-2007, 06:46 AM   #86
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2005
Location: Atlanta
Posts: 2,060
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Gamera View Post
This is well thought out post, Jake, and really should be in a seperate thread (which I've been mulling about posting myself).

But to respond, I have no problem with any of this, except one claring irregularity. Number 8. ALL authors are biased. What would it mean to have an unbiased historian -- would he write down random events in no particular order. There is no such thing as a person who isn't biased, much less somebody motivated to construct (and it is a contruct) a narrative about events. By definition he has an agenda, one that he wants to further by the writing of a history.

Further, your concern with religious bias seems misplaced or at least not thought out. The context is everything. I would think that a person with a political bias who wrote a history of political events requires much more scrutiny than a person with a religious bias who wrote a history of political events. And vice versa.

To apply this to the gospels, I see no motivation whatsoever for Luke to distort political events in his gospel, since he is concerned with a religious agenda, and is a "universalist," who is positioning his religious revelation against the political world in general. He has no obvious motivation to take sides, as say, Tacitus or Suetonius does. So I would find Luke much more reliable on Roman politics in Judea than Josephus, for instance.

Hi Gamera,

This is a good reply. Some authors are more biased than others, and we need to take the author's bias, if any, into account when evaluating their claims. For example, Eusubius tells that he is writing for a purpose, "It is my purpose to write an account of the successions of the holy apostles," Church History I.1.1. OK, that is revelaling. The authority of the Roman church depends on apotolic sucession, and he intends to build that up.

Eusubius also states a second purpose. "It is my purpose also to give the names and number and times of those who through love of innovation have run into the greatest errors, and, proclaiming themselves discoverers of knowledge falsely so-called have like fierce wolves unmercifully devastated the flock of Christ." That is also revealing. He will oppose the heretics (specifically gnotics), and he has a purpose; to save the flock of Christ from devestation.

Given such stated purposes and strong motivation, we are justified in using caution when evaluating claims that Eusubius puts forward to support apostolic succession, and Papias is a prime example.

As for Luke and political events, a case can be made that canonical Luke is strongly pro-Roman outlook. Pay your taxes (Luke 20:20-25), turn the other cheek, give the Roman soldiers your cloak, go the extra mile. In other words, be good little servants and you will get your reward in heaven! This is as far from a rabble rousing Zealot Jesus as you can get.

But back to the subject. Why don't you start a new thread on this subject? I would like to see spin's input.

Jake Jones IV
jakejonesiv is offline  
Old 03-06-2007, 08:06 AM   #87
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jan 2005
Location: USA
Posts: 1,307
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin View Post
The only thing trivial is your reaction. You hide in wordgames and don't face the problem of source validation.
This is rich. First, you use hyperbole ("any chance of being viable"), and, then, you complain of wordgames. Perhaps a better way to show you're serious is to avoid the hyperbole and avoid terminology (like "hearsay") whose complexities you haven't yet shown here to have mastered.

Stephen
S.C.Carlson is offline  
Old 03-06-2007, 08:13 AM   #88
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2005
Location: Atlanta
Posts: 2,060
Default

Hi Vinnie!

Quote:
Originally Posted by Vinnie View Post
1. Do we have the source documents? In the case of Papias' Testimony to Mark,we do not. The source is Eusubius.

No we don't have the original Q, oh wait, you aren't talking about that.
I have my doubts about Q also! So we are off to a good start.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Vinnie View Post
We have virtually no source documents (original) from this area and time period IIRC. Copies of copies. All hearsay documents of hearsay according to some round here.
We do in fact have source documents from that period. The orginals, not copies.

But you are correct. In most cases we have copies of copies. But that is not my point with Papais. We don't have any copies of his works, only a few select quotations in the Church fathers.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Vinnie View Post
We have no reason to supoose Eusebius made this up and also made up a quote and attributed it to Irenaeus, only to disagree with his fabricated assessment of Papias.
Until someone here can come up with a solid reason and stop merely poisoning the well, there is no point in discussing it.
Eusebius did have an agenda to prove apostolic succession. Church History I.1.1. This would include tying the gospels of his time back to the apostles. So he did have a reason. The question is, did he? Maybe not.


Quote:
Can you show that Eusebius' view of the authorship of the gospels was contingent or centered upon Papias?
No. The gospels already had presumed authors in his time. He was concerned to prove that these ascriptions were cast back to the apostolic past. Hence the convienence of Papias.


Quote:
Does he make it a point to dwell on this? The answer is no. All you can do is accuse the author of lying, ..
Maybe he lied, or maybe he cherry picked the information he presented to support his previously declared purpose. Sort of like the Irag war. Also, Eusubius may have told the truth as well as he could.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Vinnie View Post
2. Do we have eye witness testimony? No. We are told that Papais got his information second hand; it is not stated that he observed or talked to Mark (much less Peter).

No, but this tradition is linked to an elder and dates very early, early enough to be plausibly linked with the composition of Mark's gospel. Whether accurate or not, a line of transmission is undeniable there. By Papias' own words he hear the apostle John, Aristion and inquired of all those who followed the original disciples. This further supports a LoT in this regard.
That is a fair answer. But it the claim would have been stronger if Papias had not gotten his information second hand, would it not? I get a dozen e-mails a week in which friends warn me of some terrible danger, based on what another friend's e-mail said. Most often, these turn out to be urban legends. Have you ever played "telephone?" At a party, one person whispers a simple story to another. This is passed around the room, and the last person recounts what he or she had heard. The results are often hilarous. Now, Vinnie, please understand that I am not saying that what was told to Papias was necessarily wrong, but we must take into account that possibility.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Vinnie View Post
3. Are the claims inherently unlikely? Are there appeals to the supernatural? In the case of Papias, no.

This argues for historicity very mildly.
Agreed.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Vinnie View Post
4. Are we depending on one source (like Eusubius) or do we have mutiple witnesses to the statements in the text?

Unless you argue Eusebius invented Irenaeus' testimony on Papias then we have two.
Now wait a minute Vinnie. Ben is likely busting a gut with Ireneaus didn't quote Papias about Peter and Mark.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Vinnie View Post
This is irrelevant, however. If Eusebius can be trusted here one reference is as good as 10,000. Unless we suppose someone wrote Psuedoanonymously in the name of Papias and fooled Irenaeus and other 2d century Christians about Papias' literary activity.
Vinnie, one reference is good, but not as good as 10,000 independant attestations. Really, you do agree with this right?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Vinnie View Post
5. What is the oldest extant copy of the text?(Give date range). With all due respect to the defenders of "Secret Mark" (jumping to another text for a second) the lateness of the extant text is a factor which tells against its authenticity.

Are you talking about Papias or Q?
I would provisionally date Q to the 20th century, but what do I know? But the point is, the textual history of Eusibius is such that we can feel confident that he really did write the Papias passage in question. I don't think we would disagree on this point.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Vinnie View Post
6. Who had custody of the text during the copying period? Did they have any reason to modify or interpolate the text?

For every single example of scribal infidelity, how many examples of scribal fidelity could be shown?

7. If we are dependant on one manuscript, is there anything suspicious or unusual in its provenance?

Not that I am aware.
Agreed. I was including general items that are not applicable in this particular discussion.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Vinnie View Post
8. Was the author biased? Does the source have any reason to slant the facts. Pay special attention to religous motivations.

Eusebius was an atheist writer and therefore, unbiased. Or maybe all authors are biased.


Quote:
Originally Posted by Vinnie View Post
9. Are there inner contradictions in the document?

My Calculus text has mathematical contradictions in it (aka errors). So what if there were inner contradictions? Accoring to Sanders, ancient writers frequently incorporated sources whole without fully smoothing them out, thus resulting in inner contraditions in a finished work. This is not a question to argue from, but one to argue about.
Unless I missed something, there are no inner contradictions in this case. I am assuming you agree.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Vinnie View Post
10. Is the text consistent with or contradicted by other texts? Or neither?

Nope. Its consistent with Justin and Clements statement. The rapid use of Mark and also Irenaeus (if granted a non-Eusebian forgery).
Yes, it can be harmonized with Justin. Ben has shown that.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Vinnie View Post
11. Is the text consistent with or contradicted by archeology and artifacts? Or neither?

Nope.
Agreed.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Vinnie View Post
12. For oral tradition, do we have a plausible unbroken series of witnesses? In the case of Papias, yes.

13. If the truthfulness of a text depends on the accurate transimision of information through a series of links, what is the estimated probability of the entire chain. For example, if there are four links in a chain, and each is 80% likely, then the entire chain is .8 to the 4th power, or 40% likely. If each link is 90% likely, then the entire chain is .90 to the 4th power, or 65% likely.

That Eusebius was competant enough to copy the circulating and extant text of Papias at this point is in the high nineties. We don't know of the manuscript history of Papias' Five books. We simply know Eusebius quotes them, mentions Irenaeus' reference of them and refers his readers to consult them. We know of possibly three other people in the 2d century post Papias who made the same connection...(again assuming Eusebius did not forger Irenaeus' remarks here).

I agree there are some uncertainties and unknowns here, but its more probable than not that this citation is accurate.

Vinnie

I would be interested to see the probability you give each link.

Jake

P.S. Even if the chain of evidence is accurate, we don't know for sure that Papias was referring to the Gospel of Mark as we know it. It could have been a substantially different "proto-gospel" or even another work altogether.

Your remark that "That Papias' Mark was our canonical Mark is undeniable" is simply unknowable. Canonical? Dayum!
jakejonesiv is offline  
Old 03-06-2007, 08:49 AM   #89
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: nowhere
Posts: 15,747
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by S.C.Carlson View Post
This is rich. First, you use hyperbole ("any chance of being viable"), and, then, you complain of wordgames. Perhaps a better way to show you're serious is to avoid the hyperbole and avoid terminology (like "hearsay") whose complexities you haven't yet shown here to have mastered.
Actually, you were intruding the legal concept of hearsay -- as against the common meaning of "gossip" -- which is inappropriate to the discussion unless otherwise indicated appropriate, which it had not. I attempted to remove it from the conversation because you guys were falling over yourselves and missing the point of validating the documents you'd like to use. You don't just pluck texts off the shelf and surreptitiously insert them into an argument as though it were kosher however it is done.

Responding to my statement:

"You can't use a [document] when you can't give the data any chance of being viable".

And you are being unreasonable in ignoring its intent and whinging about the means of expression.

Not one of your best showings.


spin
spin is offline  
Old 03-06-2007, 10:12 AM   #90
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jan 2005
Location: USA
Posts: 1,307
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin View Post
Actually, you were intruding the legal concept of hearsay -- as against the common meaning of "gossip" -- which is inappropriate to the discussion unless otherwise indicated appropriate, which it had not.
The problem is that, if you had meant "gossip," you didn't say what you meant but tarted it up by calling it "hearsay" instead.

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin View Post
Responding to my statement:

"You can't use a [document] when you can't give the data any chance of being viable".

And you are being unreasonable in ignoring its intent and whinging about the means of expression.
Your expression involved tarting up your points in hyperbole and legalese. Insofar as your intent can be objectively discerned, your choice of expression evidences a lack of being serious. That Gamera and I responded the way we did shows that we've understood the intent actually conveyed in your writing whether or not it competently conveyed your true, subjective intent.

Stephen
S.C.Carlson is offline  
 

Thread Tools Search this Thread
Search this Thread:

Advanced Search

Forum Jump


All times are GMT -8. The time now is 08:33 PM.

Top

This custom BB emulates vBulletin® Version 3.8.2
Copyright ©2000 - 2015, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.