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Old 03-31-2012, 05:55 AM   #341
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Sarcasm fail dude...
And in two languages at once.
Damn. I thought I put enough signals in there to make it obvious.

I'm really getting tired of people making social judgments like "radical skepticism" and thinking that they are having an attack of scholarly insight.

Carry on, spin.
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Old 03-31-2012, 06:12 AM   #342
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In the Pauline corpus there is no sign of a Jesus sect outside Paul's communities. It is merely assumed. What was the theology of those in Jerusalem?
How is "theology" relevant? You said "coherent ideology." Paul clearly has problem with how the "ideology" of those who were "disciples before him." And that's just Galations.
One can tell when LOM is shooting from the hip. He fails to spell Galatians properly.

Note the confusion between "apostles" and "disciples"? Apostles are just proclaimers, but what exactly did they proclaim? LOM doesn't know.

This is all just a dodge. He doesn't know the beliefs of those in Jerusalem.

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Only conjecture.
As opposed to assuming a coherent ideology when what we have is evidence of diverging ideologies and schisms?
What literature that we use reflects the non-orthodox religion of its time?

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Or assuming that Acts was a particular genre, written by someone who had the letters of Paul because of the assumption of this "coherent ideology" ?
That's just incoherent.

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We don't know when "Q" was composed:
Nor is it relevant.
Relevance was given in the omissus:
We don't know when "Q" was composed: it could have been before or after Mk, but almost certainly after Paul. It's coming into Mt & Lk just unites two strands of internal development.
Q, if it exists, needs to be somehow umm, independent from the tradition development within christianity, for it to be an independent attestation usable in historical research. If it were written before Paul I'd be in trouble because there would be evidence of a strain that is independent of the Pauline initiated religion.

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The question is independent attestation. So either you deny Q exists, in which case you face an entirely different issue, or it does, and we have independent attestation within the synoptics alone, without including John or Thomas.
Varieties of, or developments within, a tradition don't indicate independence.

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Thomas is certainly not independent in that many of the logoi are found very closely in the synoptics, ie there is a literary relationship between them.
That's certainly the position of evangelical scholars who want to deny the importance of extra-canonical sources.
Good for them. Talking of denial of importance is merely LOM rubbish.

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How John fits in requires some relational dating. If there were any we could evaluate its significance.
There is, and we can.
Hey, that's some heavy stuff there, man. Can I have a hit off of it?

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We are not looking to show dependence: we are looking to show independence. Otherwise we cannot talk of independent attestations.
A text is either dependent, or not. If there is evidence that it is dependent, then we can argue it is. If there is not, then there is no reason to. All your argument consists of is conjecture based on false assumptions.
That slimey trail of burden shifting....

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There should be no shifting of the burden here. If one wants to claim multiple independent attestations, one has to show independence.
That's ridiculous, and this would be the only place in the entirety of historical study in which this holds.
I gather then the notion of "independence"" is irrelevant to LOM.

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Sources written by different authors are independent unless we have good reason to believe that they are not.
Great thing about hegemony.

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Any given account of a person, event, institution, etc., will share features with an account of the same. To assume that this necessitates dependence unless proven otherwise is ridiculous.
The first sentence is probably true. The second is an ill-directed aspersion.
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Old 03-31-2012, 08:02 AM   #343
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I tend to think it is a possibility (but cannot prove) that "brother of the Lord" might be ironic - like people might now use the phrase "God's gift to women" to refer to a man with an unduly high regard for his own worth. (example in lyrics)
I seriously doubt that, Toto. Paul is being playful but in a different way.

Besides, "God's gift to women" is a poor attempt at a putdown as it leaves the one who says it fatally exposed. When it was aimed at me in the days when I was not only smart and good looking but also a great stud, it was from the sour puss types trying to politicize their misery. My standard response was:

"I wouldn't worry about that, baby (as in here); I am God's gift to women, all right, but only to the deserving ones !"

Best,
Jiri
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Old 03-31-2012, 03:57 PM   #344
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Varieties of, or developments within, a tradition don't indicate independence.
I get the impression LOM is talking about direct dependence when you're talking about shared dependence on a religious perspective. You're probably both correct by your own definitions, but just not on the same page as each other.
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Old 03-31-2012, 07:26 PM   #345
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spin is not the only one wanting to deny that Gal. 1:18,19 is dealing with a biological brother issue.
So you don't think that the fanaticism involved in vociferously claiming that Gal 1:19 must mean that James is the biological brother of Jesus is reasonable, despite the fact 1) that the gospels show James with all the family as rejected by Jesus, 2) Acts gives no family status to James, 3) that Paul basically only uses the term "brother" for a believer in his religion, and 4) that equating the non-titular κυριος to Jesus is against the Jewish usage of the time, unprecedented and against his theology, which clearly subordinates Jesus to god. This is not exegesis: it's dogma. And apparently you are an accomplice. .
Do you see Mary Helena, you need to feel guilty!

Despite being a self styled anti-relgionist it's amazing how similar this is to the guilt manipulating tactics of religionists themselves.

Thiose who use modern linguistics (for example) to analyse the passage and conclude differently are fanatics and accomplices and should feel guilty.
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Old 03-31-2012, 07:32 PM   #346
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Yes, you have a point as it relates to the historicists. I was just trying to poke a hole in the balloon even without relying on a discussion of the linguistic issues.

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With all due respect, as I have written previously, I feel that all the linguistic investigations totally lose sight of the context both of Galatians 1 itself and anything else referring to the brother of the Lord. The fact is in terms of context that this term overall means nothing because if it did, we would see it widely used, especially since we are talking about someone who was supposedly the actual physical brother of the historical Jesus.

<snip>

The mere singular mention in passing of "brother of the Lord" in a single epistle means nothing.
Well, actually it could well mean rather a lot!

For the JC historicists it seems to be their 'got you' argument...:constern02:

For the ahistoricists/mythicists it could well be a big deal also.....

From the ahistoricist/mythicist position, the gospel JC is not a historical figure. Therefore.....................James did not exist nor did Cephas/Peter. Consequently, this Pauline passage has to be interpreted metaphorically or philosophically. I gave one such interpretation above.

And its not only that a metaphorical or philosophical interpretation of that Gal.1:18,19 passage is possible - but the implications are immense. 'Paul' is referencing two gospel figures. Two figures from a pseudo-historical story; two figures from a story that reflects a salvation interpretation of history. 'Paul' knows that gospel JC story. And not only does he know that story - but he is supporting it by claiming to have met two 'people' from that gospel story. Bottom line - 'Paul's' own story has to be questioned as to it's historicity. Real people, historical people, don't meet up with figures from a pseudo-historical, salvation history, story.

footnote: Take 'Paul' at his word - he says he is not lying - he met up with two people from the gospel JC story - one of them the brother of the Lord. The only way 'Paul' could do that is if 'Paul' is part and parcel of that NT storyboard...
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Old 03-31-2012, 09:41 PM   #347
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Sarcasm fail dude...
No kidding. Well, that tends to happen after being up for more than 24 hours and a few (more than one and less than a dozen) drinks. My apologies.
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Old 03-31-2012, 10:03 PM   #348
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One can tell when LOM is shooting from the hip. He fails to spell Galatians properly.
That's indicative of something else altogether. Usually insomnia and alcohol. However, I do appreciate your amusing shift from direct address to 3rd person rebuttal.

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Note the confusion between "apostles" and "disciples"? Apostles are just proclaimers, but what exactly did they proclaim? LOM doesn't know.
This isn't actually confusion but a use of a term due to the particular "apostles" (or even THE apostle) Paul is mainly concerned with.

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This is all just a dodge. He doesn't know the beliefs of those in Jerusalem.
Right. He made a special note that he spent 15 days with Peter. They must have been discussing the weather. He describes his confrontation with Peter over a fundamental ideological difference: The issue of gentiles and how they should be "converted" (i.e., did joining the Jesus sect involve accepting mosaic law, including circumcision, or had the risen christ superseded all that?).

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What literature that we use reflects the non-orthodox religion of its time?
As there was no "orthodoxy" using literature which reflected either orthodox or non-orthodox views would be impossible.

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That's just incoherent.


Relevance was given in the omissus:
We don't know when "Q" was composed: it could have been before or after Mk, but almost certainly after Paul. It's coming into Mt & Lk just unites two strands of internal development.
Q, if it exists, needs to be somehow umm, independent from the tradition development within christianity, for it to be an independent attestation usable in historical research.
Talk about incoherence. What on earth does "independent" from "tradition development" have to do with anything? Luther and Vatican II are also part of "tradition development." The question is whether or not these sources were using different literary or oral/aural sources. John and Thomas also intersect at times with Q (esp. Thomas) or the syntoptics in general. Yet Thomas reflects a very, very, different ideology than the Synoptics or John, and John's theology is absent in the synoptics. Simply lumping it all under "christianity" by projecting a modern categorization which didn't exist and is utterly inadequate doesn't allow one to then claim interdependence. Unless of course one isn't applying historical methods at all, but applying the kind of "apologetic" nonsense you are (and fundamentalists do).



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Varieties of, or developments within, a tradition don't indicate independence.
They do, actually, but they need not and it's again irrelevant. The question isn't whether or not Acts is part of some completely "independent tradition" but whether or not the author knew of Paul's letters. Your argument is "christians are christians and it's all one tradition so we can simply abandon the methods employed by textual critics, historians, etc., to determine literary dependence and make up whatever we want."
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Old 03-31-2012, 10:23 PM   #349
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Right. He made a special note that he spent 15 days with Peter. They must have been discussing the weather. He describes his confrontation with Peter over a fundamental ideological difference: The issue of gentiles and how they should be "converted" (i.e., did joining the Jesus sect involve accepting mosaic law, including circumcision, or had the risen christ superseded all that?).

Yes, once Paul became a follower of Jesus he then decided to go get aquainted with Peter because Peter didnt follow Jesus.
It would be the logical thing to do wouldn't it?


Then, 15 years later he goes to talk to Peter again, (naturally as Peter does not believe In jesus), and he and peter decide how they will spilt up the turf.
Why they would do this of only one of them believed in jesus is a mystery.
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Old 03-31-2012, 10:47 PM   #350
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...Yes, once Paul became a follower of Jesus he then decided to go get aquainted with Peter because Peter didnt follow Jesus.
It would be the logical thing to do wouldn't it?


Then, 15 years later he goes to talk to Peter again, (naturally as Peter does not believe In jesus), and he and peter decide how they will spilt up the turf.
Why they would do this of only one of them believed in jesus is a mystery.
When did these thing happen??? Why do people here PRESUME the veracity and historical accuracy of the Pauline writings while at the same time claim the Pauline writings were manipulated??

HJers seem to have the right to assume their own history and then have problems with those who reject their presumptions.
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