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Old 06-05-2006, 08:49 AM   #11
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Originally Posted by pharoah
I'm not so certain that it was accepted more in Paul's time than now. It's clear that Paul got a lot of flak from Jews who were opposed to his interpretation of scripture.
Paul never says that his opponents objected to his using midrash. The difference was, as you say, one of interpretation, not of method.

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And surely you not implying that modern-day apologists are overly concerned with authorial intent?
Some are not, but today we are more concerned with original context and intent.

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Originally Posted by merle
Why is it not a deceptive practice to ignore the author's original intent, and to pretend an author was saying something when he was actually saying the opposite? That sounds deceptive to me.
The key is whether the intent was to deceive. If NT exegetes thought that Jesus really was in view in OT passages, then there was no intent to deceive.
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Old 06-05-2006, 12:37 PM   #12
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Originally Posted by John Kesler
The key is whether the intent was to deceive. If NT exegetes thought that Jesus really was in view in OT passages, then there was no intent to deceive.
If there was intent to deceive, than the writers did something evil.

If there was no intent to deceive, than the writers of the NT were sadly mistaken, and we might well question their intelligence.

It is difficult for me to believe that Paul really thought the verses he quoted meant what he said they meant. He was an educated man, and could tell what the OT meant. His audience, however, often did not have access to the texts, and it is understandable that they could be deceived.

But what boggles my mind is that sophisticated, 21st century Americans read Paul's quotes of the OT and think the OT must mean what Paul says it means without ever looking it up and seeing the glaring problems. For instance, one man wrote to me:

Quote:
So follow the logic. Paul is using the Old Testament to declare that Jesus is the Messiah. Unless he is a total fool, then there must be support for the messianic claims of Jesus in the Old Testament.
Did it never occur to this writer that he might want to look it up before he makes this claim? :huh:
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Old 06-06-2006, 05:08 AM   #13
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All references to Jesus & Christianity throughout Romans are interpolations (or later additions after Christianity became established).

Paul, A SLAVE OF CHRIST JESUS, called to be an apostle having been separated to the gospel of God, which he promised beforehand through the prophets of him in writings holy, CONCERNING THE SON OF HIM, THE ONE COME OF THE SEED OF DAVID ACCORDING TO THE FLESH, DESIGNATED SON OF GOD WITH POWER ACCORDING TO THE SPIRIT OF HOLINESS BY A RESURRECTION OF DEAD PERSONS, JESUS CHRIST THE LORD OF US, THROUGH WHOM WE RECEIVE GRACE AND APOSTLESHIP FOR OBEDIENCE OF FAITH AMONG ALL THE NATIONS ON BEHALF OF THE NAME OF HIM, AMONG WHOM ARE YOU ALSO CALLED TO BE OF JESUS CHRIST, to all those being in Rome beloved of God, called to be holy: Grace to you and peace from God the father of us AND LORD JESUS CHRIST.

Firstly, I thank the God of me THROUGH JESUS CHRIST concerning all you, because the faith of you is being announced in all the world. For witness of me is God, whom I serve in the spirit of me IN THE GOSPEL OF THE SON OF HIM how unceasingly mention of you I make ….

Etc.

Thus the text originally read:

Paul, called to be an apostle having been separated to the gospel of God, which he promised beforehand through the prophets of him in writings holy, to all those being in Rome beloved of God, called to be holy: Grace to you and peace from God the father of us.

Firstly, I thank the God of me concerning all you, because the faith of you is being announced in all the world. For witness of me is God, whom I serve in the spirit of me, how unceasingly mention of you I make ….

Etc.

Christianity came into existence as a consequence of the activities of a single individual who "altered the sacred texts (of a pre-existing Jewish sect founded by Paul), wrote others of his own and made himself very wealthy." (late 2nd century non-Christian Roman author commenting on the origins of Christianity).

'...the faith of you is being announced in all the world...' interests me. If one takes this literally then one needs to look for a Jewish sect in Rome that attracted a lot of attention to itself.
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Old 06-06-2006, 06:17 AM   #14
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Originally Posted by Newton's Cat
All references to Jesus & Christianity throughout Romans are interpolations (or later additions after Christianity became established).

Paul, A SLAVE OF CHRIST JESUS,

[snipped]

Etc.

Thus the text originally read:

Paul,
Why "thus"? How does one choose what stays and what doesn't without being arbitrary?


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Old 06-06-2006, 07:17 AM   #15
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Originally Posted by spin
How does one choose what stays and what doesn't without being arbitrary?
All references to Jesus & Christianity that appear in the text whilst it is detailing Jewish practices, beliefs, and customs can be removed without disrupting the flow of thought. None of the references to Jesus and Christianity are an essential part of the text. This is remarkable - that one can remove the central character from a storyline and be left with something that makes perfect sense. In fact, after removing the references to Jesus and Christianity one is left with a text that is clearly much more coherent than it is when one's thoughts are constantly being "side-tracked" by the Jesus bits.
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Old 06-06-2006, 07:29 AM   #16
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Newton's Cat
All references to Jesus & Christianity that appear in the text whilst it is detailing Jewish practices, beliefs, and customs can be removed without disrupting the flow of thought. None of the references to Jesus and Christianity are an essential part of the text. This is remarkable - that one can remove the central character from a storyline and be left with something that makes perfect sense. In fact, after removing the references to Jesus and Christianity one is left with a text that is clearly much more coherent than it is when one's thoughts are constantly being "side-tracked" by the Jesus bits.
He maketh a good point. I always wondered WTF was up with that HUG run-on sentence.
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Old 06-06-2006, 08:23 AM   #17
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Originally Posted by Newton's Cat
All references to Jesus & Christianity that appear in the text whilst it is detailing Jewish practices, beliefs, and customs can be removed without disrupting the flow of thought. None of the references to Jesus and Christianity are an essential part of the text. This is remarkable - that one can remove the central character from a storyline and be left with something that makes perfect sense. In fact, after removing the references to Jesus and Christianity one is left with a text that is clearly much more coherent than it is when one's thoughts are constantly being "side-tracked" by the Jesus bits.
I don't see how you get past the challenge on the arbitrary nature of excising large bits based on the sole criterion that anything regarding Jesus is secondary. You chop out most of the first part of the text to get to your destination.

It is usually understood that Paul is writing to Jews in Rome so he deals with Jewish practices, but then he comes in chapters 5 & 6 to his big Jesus sell. It's understandable, if this is correct, that after an intro strong on Jesus we get down to Paul's sidling into his discourse, which is quite Jewish in its approach to Jesus, ie that as death came with one man, another would take it away...

No, so far, I don't see that your excising the Jesus references and coming up with a Jewish epistle is remarkable. I think you need more evidence than your own cutting and slashing.


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Old 06-06-2006, 08:52 AM   #18
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Newton's Cat
All references to Jesus & Christianity that appear in the text whilst it is detailing Jewish practices, beliefs, and customs can be removed without disrupting the flow of thought. None of the references to Jesus and Christianity are an essential part of the text.

Is this a general principle (removing text that doesn't interrupt the flow of thought) that can be applied to using other references (e.g., to John the Baptist) and to other texts (e.g., Mark) to identify interpolations?

I'm sorry, but I don't see what this demonstrates other than Paul wasn't laboring under a word limit in his epistles and that many words, phrases and/or paragraphs can be deleted while preserving - although likely at the expense of the author's intended nuances, clarifications and points of emphasis - a coherent text.

Regards,

V.
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Old 06-06-2006, 09:09 AM   #19
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And, Newton's Cat, I'm not trying to discourage your analysis.
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Old 06-06-2006, 09:34 AM   #20
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Vivisector
Is this a general principle (removing text that doesn't interrupt the flow of thought) that can be applied to using other references (e.g., to John the Baptist) and to other texts (e.g., Mark) to identify interpolations?

I'm sorry, but I don't see what this demonstrates other than Paul wasn't laboring under a word limit in his epistles and that many words, phrases and/or paragraphs can be deleted while preserving - although likely at the expense of the author's intended nuances, clarifications and points of emphasis - a coherent text.

Regards,

V.
Does Greek have prepositional phrases?
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