Amaleq13

Why "marginal"?

How big is the "c" in your dating estimate? IOW, how much earlier than the latest date for the final form of GJohn might this adoption of the idea have occurred?

andrewcriddle

I say 'marginal' (tentatively) because our earliest clear evidence of the use of John seems to come from groups like the Valentimians. IMO there is a gap between the writing of John and its general acceptance by 'orthodox' Christianity which we don't find with the synoptics. We also have apparently otherwise 'mainstream' figures like Gaius in Rome in the late 2nd century rejecting John's gospel.

IMVHO 'Logos' ideas could have entered (some) forms of Christianity any time after 70 CE although John's gospel is our earliest evidence. IMO the latest possible date for the final form of John's gospel is somewhere in the reign of Hadrian although I would personally date it considerably earlier. Hence there would be a 60 year gap between my estimate of the earliest possible date for 'Logios' ideas in Christianity and my estimate for the latest possible date of John's gospel.

Andrew Criddle

GakuseiDon

It's an interesting question, Andrew. I haven't really thought how GJohn factors into this. It seems to form a bridge between Paul's hints of a personified wisdom made flesh and the later notion of the Word being made flesh, but beyond that I can't say. It's interesting that you suggest that it was adopted by a marginal Christian group, and that the Valentinians made early use of it - something for me to look into further, I think!