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Old 04-23-2010, 04:20 AM   #231
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I do not think that Paul was mentally ill.

However, I do think the way in which his writings have come to be portrayed and the context into which they were squeezed is the result of later dellusion.
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Old 04-23-2010, 06:31 AM   #232
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I agree that these aspects lend more credibility to the letters. But isn't it possible that the theological points Paul discusses were in fact 2nd C issues rather than pre-70 ones? There is the idea that the epistles are addressing gnostics teachings, tracking a middle path between ascetism and libertinism (as Jesus and his followers distinguish themselves from John the Baptist's stricter lifestyle in the gospels)

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1) Paul engages in damage control. This is especially evident in 1 Corinthians in which he must have previously taught them something which either amounted to "Ignore all rules" or something misunderstandable as that. If people understand "ignore all rules" to amount to "live like Spinoza" then it is the best system, but most people can't or won't receive it that way. (J. A. T. Robinson learned the same hard lesson, it hadn't occurred to him that so many people would misunderstand his quasi-antinomianism after he explained it so well.) If Paul were a literary creation, how can one explain the damage control?

2) Paul's letters assume knowledge of his preaching. Some people here make a big point of his near silence about the earthly life of Jesus, but even with what I regard as the absurd premise of Jesus-mythicism, the problem that he doesn't explain the the background remains. There is some background necessary to understand much of what he is writing about and it isn't supplied in the letters, but his original readership must have had that background. It is a kind of paradox that the things which are clearest for us about Paul are the things that his readers found difficult - the things that were understood by his readers, he doesn't explain fully. This is a natural situation for a real-life Paul writing letters to churches, but how could this happen with a purely literary creation?

Peter.
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Old 04-23-2010, 06:48 AM   #233
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The NT Canon has established that Jesus, the offspring of the Holy Ghost, had an apostle called Peter in gMatthew, gMark, gLuke, gJohn, Acts of the Apostles, Galatians, 1 and 2 Peter.

That is more than sufficient to established that wherever the name Peter is found refers to the apostle Peter unless the author makes a distinction.

No it isn't. You have no idea who wrote these things, or in what sequence, and whether the entities spoken of were conceived in the same way by the people who wrote them. The Canon is a compilation of writings from various sources, not the work of one hand, and it is already a firmly established fact in the field of biblical studies that the texts are filled with tendentious and contradictory theologizing, with different conceptions being touted at various points.

Therefore you have no idea whether "apostle" is meant the same way in Acts as it is in Paul, especially in light of the fact that, in Paul, this "Peter" is not spoken of as being a personal disciple of any Jesus entity we might reasonably construe as having been at one time alive.

You have an unexamined trust that the various unknown authors had in their minds the same conceptions, consistently throughout the Canon. On the basis of holding the conceptions steady, you note contradictions with fact. But in view of the fact that the work is a compilation by various hands, the conceptions are no more guaranteed to be internally consistent throughout, than they are guaranteed to be consistent with reality.
What you wrote is just absurd, illogical and contradictory.

You cannot now make any arguments for your "genuine Paul" since you have an UNEXAMINED TRUST for one author who appears to have been accused of Lying in his own writings.

You refer to a character as "genuine Paul" and that character refers to himself as an apostle.

You certainly have NOT shown that your "genuine Paul" was an apostle, that he really did exist in the first century and that he wrote any letters at all.

You seem to be satisfied that it has been established that there was an apostle called PAUL in the NT Canon, yet refuse to accept that it was established there was an apostle Peter in the very NT Canon.

You are playing a game.

You cannot attempt to tell me anything about your "genuine Paul" unless you abide by the same conditions you are trying to impose upon the character called "apostle Peter".

And, again, you have avoided the other LIE by "your genuine Paul". He claimed he persecuted Jesus believers, but there were no Jesus believers.

The Jesus character did not exist before the Fall of the Temple.

Your "genuine Paul" was a LIAR.

Now, I will demonstrate that it can be established that your "genuine Paul" was most likely a fraud.

There is only one Epistle outside of the Pauline Epistle where the name PAUL is found.

The name Paul can be found in 2 Peter 3.15.

2 Peter has been deemed to be a forgery by apologetic sources. See Church History 3.3.1.

The name SAUL/PAUL can be found in Acts.

In Acts, the blinding bright light conversion of SAUL/PAUL is fiction and repeated 3 times. See Acts 9.

Now, in the very Pauline writings the name Paul is associated with forgeries.

1. Paul is mentioned in a forged Epistle, 2 Peter.

2. Paul's conversion is fiction in Acts.

3. The name Paul is associated with forgeries in writings under the name Paul in Epistles.

4. No writer in the NT Canon external of the Pauline Epistles wrote about Paul as an apostle.


It is most likely that your "genuine Paul" was a LIAR and a fraud.
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Old 04-23-2010, 07:54 AM   #234
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You cannot attempt to tell me anything about your "genuine Paul" unless you abide by the same conditions you are trying to impose upon the character called "apostle Peter".
But I do abide by the same conditions - in the Pauline writings, Paul is no more evidently an "apostle" (in the same sense as in Acts) than the Peter he talks about.

That is to say, the "Paul" writing is internally consistent in speaking of both <whoever the "voice" of the writings is> and Cephas/Peter as "apostles" (i.e. messengers) of (what looks like) a revised idea about what the Messiah was, and not "apostles" in the sense of disciples of an entity whom we both have reason to suspect didn't exist (which is the kind of "apostle" evident in Acts).
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Old 04-23-2010, 10:23 AM   #235
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You cannot attempt to tell me anything about your "genuine Paul" unless you abide by the same conditions you are trying to impose upon the character called "apostle Peter".
But I do abide by the same conditions - in the Pauline writings, Paul is no more evidently an "apostle" (in the same sense as in Acts) than the Peter he talks about.

That is to say, the "Paul" writing is internally consistent in speaking of both <whoever the "voice" of the writings is> and Cephas/Peter as "apostles" (i.e. messengers) of (what looks like) a revised idea about what the Messiah was, and not "apostles" in the sense of disciples of an entity whom we both have reason to suspect didn't exist (which is the kind of "apostle" evident in Acts).

Again, you do not abide by the same conditions. The existence or non-existence of Jesus cannot alter the meaning of "apostle" where it is claimed Jesus, while on earth, had apostles and one was called Peter.

You have not even began to demonstrate that your "genuine Pauline" is internally consistent.

You have already claimed that you can ONLY SPECULATE.

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Originally Posted by gurugeorge
....All we can do is build speculative, inconclusive
theories on the basis of the evidence we do have. But even then, since
there's a lot of contradiction already in it, which side of any
contradiction you might take (e.g. is "Paul" lying or are later sources
lying?) is itself up in the air - nothing about the data we have gives
us any sure criteria for deciding......
It is clear that you are playing a game.

You are changing your arguments in "chameleon-style".

The word "messenger" was not used to described the apostles of Jesus in the NT Canon. No character in the NT Canon is called Peter the messenger.

It cannot be shown that the Pauline writer was writing about a messenger and not an apostle called Peter.

The Pauline writer in Galatians 1.15-20 appears to be trying to resolve another report about his travels to Jerusalem where the author of ACTS claimed that Saul/Paul after his blinding bright light conversion and preaching in Damascus went to Jerusalem and did meet with the Apostles of Jesus.

See Acts 9.

It is just absurd to read Galatians 1.15-20 in isolation when Acts 9 must also be taken into consideration to determine the veracity or plausibility of the events.

The author of Acts claimed that Barnabus introduced Saul/Paul to the apostles.

The Pauline writer claimed he only met the apostle Peter and the Lord's brother.

And after reading Acts 9, it must be clear that "apostles" mean apostles of Jesus and that Peter was one of the apostles that your "geniune Paul" claimed he met.

And, in the end, both the author of Acts and your "genuine Paul" are liars since there were no apostles, or no messengers of Jesus before the Fall of the Temple.

And you still have no answer for the LIE when your "genuine Paul" wrote that he persecuted non-existing Jesus believers.

Your "genuine Paul" was not mad, just a genuine LIAR.
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Old 04-23-2010, 10:46 AM   #236
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I think it's clear that he was mentally ill.
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Old 04-23-2010, 11:58 AM   #237
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I think it's clear that he was mentally ill.
Where is it clear that he was mentally ill?

A Pauline writer appears to have admitted that he lied.

Ro 3:7 -
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For if the truth of God hath more abounded through my lie unto his glory; why yet am I also judged as a sinner?
It was the veracity of Pauline writer that was questioned not his mental state.
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Old 04-23-2010, 01:53 PM   #238
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Again, you do not abide by the same conditions. The existence or non-existence of Jesus cannot alter the meaning of "apostle" where it is claimed Jesus, while on earth, had apostles and one was called Peter.
Where is it claimed in the "genuine Paul" writings that Jesus had apostles while on earth?
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Old 04-23-2010, 05:12 PM   #239
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No it isn't. You have no idea who wrote these things, or in what sequence, and whether the entities spoken of were conceived in the same way by the people who wrote them. The Canon is a compilation of writings from various sources, not the work of one hand, and it is already a firmly established fact in the field of biblical studies that the texts are filled with tendentious and contradictory theologizing, with different conceptions being touted at various points.
It is interesting to note that the only reference to Peter (Cephas) in the Pauline corpus that alludes to him as an 'apostle' is Gal 1:18-19, by implication that hinges on a single word, 'heteros'. (went to Jerusalem to see Cephas...but of the (other) apostles I saw none...). By contrast, 1 Cor 9:5 mentions Cephas outside of the group the "other apostles" and 1 Cor 15:5 (which may not be authentic Paul but is early nonetheless) mentions him outside the "twelve".

Jiri
The truth may be not only queerer than we suppose, but queerer than we can suppose

I'm really looking forward to Robert Price's book on Paul coming out soon - The Amazing Colossal Apostle (what great titles he thinks up for his books! ). So far as I can gather, it's basically going to go deeply into the question of the strange similarities between the stories about Simon Magus, Paul and Marcion, amongst other things (e.g. Marcion and his donation according to one of the Fathers, whose name I can't remember atm, Simon Magus and his donation in the Pseudo-Clementines, and Paul and his donation in Galatians/Romans (?)).

aa should be slightly pleased though, I gather Price doesn't think much of the Pauline epistles at all, and thinks they're late, and probably reflect Marcion more than the earliest Christianity, especially Galatians (though there might be some early stuff in there and in some of the other letters).
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Old 04-23-2010, 05:53 PM   #240
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I agree that these aspects lend more credibility to the letters. But isn't it possible that the theological points Paul discusses were in fact 2nd C issues rather than pre-70 ones?
1) If they are actual letters addressing problems on the ground, they are written at a time when there are people known as "apostles" visiting churches. This is always seen as a past age in second century documents. There has been some discussion here of the meaning of "apostle." It literally means "emissary" but clearly has a special sense which is not defined anywhere in the NT. My best guess is that it applies to those people who had carried the "good news" message to an area where it had not been heard before.

2) It is clear that James in Jerusalem, and messengers sent by him had more natural authority with many of Paul's converts than Paul himself. It would be very hard to place this anywhere but before the wars. It is also clear that there is no such central authority later on for quite some time.

I think the really important thing to remember when reading works which assume a lot of insider information as Paul's epistles do is to pay very close attention to the assumptions you are making and not to latch on too tightly to any of them. There is a very great risk that once you assume you have some piece figured out that you will bend the other pieces to fit. If you notice that you are bending pieces to fit, it is a good bet that one you assume correct is wrong.

Don't assume that Paul's gospel is about Jesus rather than about the Kindgom.
Don't assume that the language of high christology means what you think it does,

Peter.
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