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Old 11-20-2005, 06:39 PM   #21
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Orthodox_Freethinker
Again, that is only the unsubstantiated assumption of the philosophical naturalist. This line of argument is truly pathetic. What we have in the Gospels is Jesus Christ prophecizing that the temple would fall within his generation. Of course, this is impossible if you hold to the philosophical predisposition that Jesus was not a divine prophet. For those who are concerned with historical fact, however, it's not at all surprising that he could make such an accurate prediction. What you've provided is shameless circular reasoning.

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This is why I noted the apologetics' attempt to date the Gospels as far back as possible. The peculiarities are that they mention the fall of the temple as was prophesized, but not as what actually happened. The argument is that if they were written after 70 A.D. they would have mentioned both the prophecy and the fulfillment of that prophecy, but it is far more likely that they were written after the fall and only then did they say "Jesus totally saw that coming."
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Old 11-20-2005, 06:42 PM   #22
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Guys - take it to BC&H
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Old 11-20-2005, 06:48 PM   #23
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I don't even know how the whole Bible/Jebuz discussion came about in this thread. Is there a point to all this?
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Old 11-20-2005, 06:49 PM   #24
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Originally Posted by breathilizer
it is far more likely that they were written after the fall and only then did they say "Jesus totally saw that coming."
Again, your philosophical predisposition requires you to make this unbustantiated assumption. If Jesus Christ made such an accurate prophecy, it opens the door to his divinity. You cannot tolerate that possibility and therefore must assign a later, unsupported date. The Gospel of John is the latest Gospel and makes no mention of Jesus' prophecy given that it had already come to pass. In the Gospel of Mark, however, Jesus makes a prophecy of surprising accuracy. It's rather telling that only the lunatic fringe of New Testament scholarship agrees with you.

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Old 11-20-2005, 06:49 PM   #25
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Derail split from E/C thread.

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ETA: This'll be moved somewhere as soon as I figure out where -- GRD or BC&H.
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Old 11-20-2005, 07:10 PM   #26
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Orthodox_Freethinker
Again, that is only the unsubstantiated assumption of the philosophical naturalist. This line of argument is truly pathetic. What we have in the Gospels is Jesus Christ prophecizing that the temple would fall within his generation. Of course, this is impossible if you hold to the philosophical predisposition that Jesus was not a divine prophet. For those who are concerned with historical fact, however, it's not at all surprising that he could make such an accurate prediction. What you've provided is shameless circular reasoning.
Given that John and Thomas were written after the fall of Jerusalem, there was no need to mention it given that the prophecy had already been fulfilled.

Peace.
This is exactly the kind of unsupported assertion that makes your world-vew look dishonest. You say " Jesus Christ prophesizing" when we both know that what you mean is "When followers of followers of Jesus claim He prophesised" and you don't admit to the important distinction. These followers had good reason to embellish what Jesus said. The same reasons that Fred Phelps and the Pope have for embellishing. Looking wise while spouting self serving crap is a very powerful motivator.

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Old 11-20-2005, 07:19 PM   #27
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Orthodox_Freethinker
Again, your philosophical predisposition requires you to make this unbustantiated assumption. If Jesus Christ made such an accurate prophecy, it opens the door to his divinity. You cannot tolerate that possibility and therefore must assign a later, unsupported date. The Gospel of John is the latest Gospel and makes no mention of Jesus' prophecy given that it had already come to pass. In the Gospel of Mark, however, Jesus makes a prophecy of surprising accuracy. It's rather telling that only the lunatic fringe of New Testament scholarship agrees with you.

Peace.
MOST scholars place the dates as after 80 A.D., not the "lunatic fringe." Sorry, the lunatic fringe would be YOU, for you are one of the apologetics placing them much earlier in order to have them match up with YOUR predisposition that the prophecies must have been legitimate rather than after-the-fact.
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Old 11-20-2005, 07:26 PM   #28
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Off to BC&H.

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Old 11-20-2005, 07:31 PM   #29
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Quote:
Originally Posted by breathilizer
MOST scholars place the dates as after 80 A.D., not the "lunatic fringe."
Only a small minority of Biblical scholars would insist on the impossibility of Jesus making an accurate prediction of the future. If this is the only reason you have for a later date, that is rather pathetic. You won't find the facts of mainstream scholarship in the Jesus Seminar.

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Old 11-20-2005, 07:36 PM   #30
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Columbus
This is exactly the kind of unsupported assertion that makes your world-vew look dishonest. You say " Jesus Christ prophesizing" when we both know that what you mean is "When followers of followers of Jesus claim He prophesised" and you don't admit to the important distinction. These followers had good reason to embellish what Jesus said. The same reasons that Fred Phelps and the Pope have for embellishing. Looking wise while spouting self serving crap is a very powerful motivator.

Tom
The best scholarship shows that Mark, the earliest Gospel, was written before the temple fell and therefore, it contains an accurate prophecy.

PLACE AND DATE OF COMPOSITION
http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/09674b.htm#V

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