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Old 06-22-2007, 01:07 AM   #441
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If Paul didn't think Jesus was in some way special he couldn't plausibly conclude his life, death and resurrection had salvational value.
Paul does perfectly well considering the death and resurrection of Jesus to have been significant without mentioning much about his life or bothering to connect that life with the sacrifice at all so your objection appears to have less to do with what Paul actually wrote than what you think is plausible that Paul might have thought.

What Paul does write is entirely consistent with the idea that he considered the life Jesus lead to have been entirely irrelevant to the significance of his death except that it apparently prevented those who executed him from recognizing who they were killing.

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Well, resurrection is pretty unique. But I didn't claim he "connects" it.
Oh, please, Don't try to play semantic games at this late point in the discussion. You have been quite clearly trying to argue that Paul's gospel was about the "unique life", death, and resurrection of Jesus when you apparently knew just as well as everyone that only the latter two of that trio is actually supported by his letters.

You should have stuck with "Paul's gospel was a narrative" and avoided claiming things you can't support with anything more than your personal beliefs about what is "plausible".

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I claimed that it's plausible that he did in the gospel that he actually preached otherwise his claims about the salvational death of Jesus would appear lesss than convincing...
Given that he explicitly states that Jesus took on the form of a servant and apparently specifically did so to avoid recognition by those who were to execute him, your incredulity would seem to be entirely unjustified.

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Note that the address to the Athenians, whether authentic or not, does just that, placing Jesus' life in a special context of "proving up" God's coming judgment. So either Paul did make the connection in his preaching or people thought he did.
Could you identify the specific verse(s) you have in mind?

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Originally Posted by Amaleq13
Not "happened" but "regular guy" seems entirely compatible with Phil 2:7 and, therefore, quite plausible.
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Really?
Absolutely. According to Paul, Jesus sacrificed whatever made him "equal" to God, took on the form of a servant, and hid his true nature from those who were to kill him. That is entirely compatible with the idea of a rather innocuous life being lead by the incarnated Christ. Only more so when we take into account that Paul makes no mention whatsoever about Jesus displaying magical powers or healing anyone or anything similar.

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I think being "in the form of God" suggests a certain uniqueness.
Paul certainly describes a "unique" existence for Jesus prior to his incarnation as well as after his execution but I simply cannot find anything to support your claim about what Paul thought about what Jesus was doing between those points.
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Old 06-22-2007, 03:06 AM   #442
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And Chris, are you yet ready to let us know what it is that archeology has confirmed 'surrounding' the Jesus story, as per your comment about the 'bigger picture'?
WTF IS PILATE?
Pontius Pilatus? Um, he's this dude in the middle:



Well, actually that's Michael Palin playing him in a film, but 'WTF' back at you. I'll refer you back to my post #389:
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Minimalist's big pictures are that the romans under JC fought that Gauls and won, and that the jews fought the romans and lost, etc., both central parts (in the 'big picture' scale of things) of the writings of JC and Josephus.

Your bigger picture is that the romans were occupying the area, and that Herod and Pilate ruled, etc., none of which are central parts of the Jesus story, but rather are the background, just as the american civil war, and the events therein, was the background for Gone With The Wind.

What, in your opinion, has archaeology confirmed surrounding the Jesus story (i.e. what's your bigger picture)?
So, Chris, what parts involving Pilate do you consider central parts of the Jesus story? Do you consider these parts of the story credible, and - if so - why?
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Old 06-22-2007, 03:12 AM   #443
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As I understand it the ancient meaning of "evangelion" was good news related to a significant event (e.g. a herald telling of a victory in war or something like that), but you are sneaking in two assumptions :

1) that Paul's gospel was the narrative of Jesus' life as found in the gospels (i.e. that they're talking about the same thing, only Paul's just summarising the story in a few key events whereas the Gospel writers give the whole thing), rather than simply the victory of Jesus resurrection (which is the important bit - the life could easily be just a necessary corollary he had to mention, and not that important in relation to the victory itself); and

2) that Paul was talking about an actual historical event rather than a mythical "event".

And in view of Paul's saying he got it from Jesus himself, the mythical reading seems more likely (i.e. it was a visionary experience, possibly shared with the "Pillars", possibly not - they might have just been a cult heralding this entity based on their reading of Scripture, or proclaiming his "necessity" based on Scripture, and Paul's the one who says he has had actual contact with the cult entity).
You misconstrue.

I'm not assuming those conclusions sneakilly. I'm stating that Paul's reference to his preaching the gospel, and the information he give us about what he preached in his letters is evidence for those conclusions: (a) Paul having preached about an historical Jesus; and (b) Paul talking about an historical event.

So I'm not assuming them at all. I'm arguing for them. I gave my reasons. To summarize, his references to Jesus' life, execution, burial, ressurection and appearnce to himself and the Apostles, seems to accord with the synoptics. It isn't proof, but it sure seems like good evidence that both Paul and the gospel writers were refering to the same events: the biography of Jesus that constitutes the gospel message.

In contrast there is no evidence that Paul's preaching invovled a mystical nonhistorical Jesus. Indeed, church tradition says otherwise.

So I think I have the more plausible argument given the facts and texts we have.
But your taking those references to execution (there's no mention of "life" in the sense of biography), burial, resurrection and appearance to refer to a real human being's life IN PAUL is what's question-begging. On the face of it, in and of themselves, and in conjunction with the tenor of the rest of Paul (e.g. the mystical stuff, the stuff about the "magical" aspects of Christian worship such as prophecy, tongues, etc., the discussion of the spiritual - non-fleshly - nature of resurrection, and the reference to "according to Scripture"), why would those references have to be any more historical than "Tell Persephone, that Bacchus himself has redeemed you" or "the God is saved, and we shall have salvation" (an Orphic inscription, 4th cent. BCE, and a fragment of mystery liturgy from Meyer's book, can't remember which deity)?

You're also equivocating the original meaning of "gospel", meaning the heralding of the good news of the event of Christ's victory over death (which is so obviously Paul's direct meaning, and quite in accord with the original meaning of the term, indeed quite a clever, ironic use of the term, given the traditional military/political Jewish Messiah concept), with the later, extended sense of "gospel" as meaning the "good news" of the whole story of birth-ministry(both, taken together, being "life", and both forming the bulk of the later "gospel" narratives proper)-execution-resurrection. (As I said above, there is in fact no mention of "life" in Paul's clearly and directly-expressed "gospel".)

You're simply taking it for granted that they mean the same thing, but in view of how odd Paul is in relation to much of later Christianity, there's no particular reason why one should. (If you're a Christian and you're placing trust in the tradition, that's fair enough - I'm not saying your position is incoherent, and can't be read into the texts at all - but I'm sure you will forgive non-Christians for being more critical, and not taking so much for granted.)
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Old 06-22-2007, 10:10 AM   #444
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That there is no logical reason for anyone to hold the position that an HJ is in anyway more likely than an MJ.
I wouldn't go as far as saying there is no logical reason to hold the HJ position, unless it's held tightly. The idea that there was a real ordinary person who became deified and spawned Christianity is really not an extraordinary claim.

Any conclusions we draw based on what is presently available is a matter of what is perceived parsimonius. I really don't see how positing a historical figure resolves any isues regardling the legendary Biblical figure. IMHO, Ockham's razor does not favor the HJ position.
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Old 06-22-2007, 10:34 AM   #445
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Originally Posted by post tenebras lux View Post
What, in your opinion, has archaeology confirmed surrounding the Jesus story (i.e. what's your bigger picture)?
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So, Chris, what parts involving Pilate do you consider central parts of the Jesus story? Do you consider these parts of the story credible, and - if so - why?
His crucifixion, yes, universal attestation, even by dissidents.
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Old 06-22-2007, 10:40 AM   #446
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Eh? You think Pilate would crucify someone who wasn't breaking roman law?

Seriously?

Next you'll be claiming that Pilate would also allow a crucified man to be taken down off the cross after a day to be buried rather than left there to rot!
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Old 06-22-2007, 11:10 AM   #447
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You think Pilate would crucify someone who wasn't breaking roman law?
Why do you assume the crucified individual didn't break Roman law?

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Next you'll be claiming that Pilate would also allow a crucified man to be taken down off the cross after a day to be buried rather than left there to rot!
IIRC, Josephus informs us this was not an unknown practice.
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Old 06-22-2007, 11:23 AM   #448
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IIRC, Josephus informs us this was not an unknown practice.
Wars 4.5.2.

He also talks about getting a couple acquaintances down at Life 76.
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Old 06-22-2007, 11:24 AM   #449
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You think Pilate would crucify someone who wasn't breaking roman law?
Why do you assume the crucified individual didn't break Roman law?
So 'one side' of this debate gets accused of assuming things and not assuming this. Brilliant. Do you know anything about Chris' claim that his crucifixion has "universal attestation, even by dissidents"?
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Next you'll be claiming that Pilate would also allow a crucified man to be taken down off the cross after a day to be buried rather than left there to rot!
IIRC, Josephus informs us this was not an unknown practice.
Any chance of a reference to check if it's relevant?

ETA: thanks GFA, I'll look it up. If only the invisible one would deign to be so helpful.
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Old 06-22-2007, 11:31 AM   #450
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ETA: thanks GFA, I'll look it up. If only the invisible one would deign to be so helpful.
I was about to provide the passage when I was beaten to it. Are you done goading me yet?
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