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02-05-2004, 10:26 AM | #21 |
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You can read a short excerpt from Maccoby here:
Paul's Bungling Attempt At Sounding Pharisaic excerpt from: The Mythmaker: Paul and the Invention of Christianity You can often find remaindered copies of the book at Barnes and Noble for under $10. |
02-05-2004, 11:07 AM | #22 | |
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Thanks for the link. I first got interested in the book thanks to Llyricist and that is when I discovered it was out of print. |
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02-05-2004, 11:10 AM | #23 | |
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02-05-2004, 11:16 AM | #24 | |
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here.) |
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02-05-2004, 11:24 AM | #25 | |
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Amazon has me so brainwashed I don't even think about B&N. |
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02-05-2004, 11:30 AM | #26 | |
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That is true unless the use of "we" in those passages is the result of the nature of the narrative rather than the motivation described above. This was discussed most recently in this thread: http://www.iidb.org/vbb/showthread.p...threadid=73159 |
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02-05-2004, 07:49 PM | #27 |
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http://www.essene.com/Yeshua/Yeshua.htm
This link has some relevant information about Jesus's birth. According to this branch of Messianic Judiasm Jesus's birth was a natural one, thus the title "Son of God" would not be meant in terms of actual parentage but instead metaphorically. The link mentions mistranslations in the texts of the New Testament. |
02-06-2004, 04:42 PM | #28 | |
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At any rate moving the deed to his baptism does change anything to my argument. The words used, however, are interesting because they are similar to the words used in Hebrews 1 which probably means that this is the original version of the Gospels. |
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02-06-2004, 04:51 PM | #29 | |
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02-07-2004, 03:06 PM | #30 |
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From the link....
When Isaiah had been translated into Greek, the Hebrew word almah (veiled), which meant a young woman of marriageable age was mistranslated as parthenos - virgin.. Had Isaiah meant Emanuel's mother to be a virgin he would have called her bethulah, the proper meaning of which is a virgin maiden. (Genesis 24:16; Leviticus 21:13; Deuteronomy 22:14,23,28; Judges 11:37; I Kings 1:2). Matthew's original wording has been preserved only in an early Syriac codex, in which the genealogy concluded: "And Jacob fathered Joseph, the husband of Mary, and he fathered Jesus, the reputed Messiah." - Matthew 1:16 All surviving Greek manuscripts contain the revised genealogy: "And Jacob fathered Joseph, the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus, the reputed Messiah." - Matthew 1:16 I would call it a mistranslation when one word is inappropriatelly translated into a word in a different language that is not entirely accurate. This would help to illustrate how the title of Jesus as being the son of God would have been inappropriate at his birth, because he was actually the son of Joseph (paternally speaking). The title of "son of God" would be metaphorically speaking. |
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