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Old 11-13-2006, 02:29 PM   #51
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John Knox (the modern writer, not to be confused with John Knox the Protestant Reformer) in Marcion and the New Testament: An Essay in the Early History of the Canon (ISBN 0-404-16183-9) was the first to propose that Marcion's Gospel may have preceded Luke's Gospel and Acts.[4]
From above link
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Old 11-13-2006, 02:59 PM   #52
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What I cannot work out is how come it seems to be accepted that Marcion was a heretic and therefore his views were wrong. Yup he lost a power struggle, but who is to say his views were actually heretical except the victors?
From a secular perspective, they were both wrong. Jesus obviously had no intention of founding a major religion. For all practical purposes, it was Peter who founded Christianity, and Paul who shaped the mainstream. Marcion is considered a heretic because he disagreed with that mainstream.

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Might Marcion have produced a nearly complete New Testament that was later amended by those who called him heretics?

It has been argued he was responsible for Paul. Why not most of the NT?
I'm not sure what you mean by that. Marcion was responsible for the first known collection of authoritative Christian literature, and edited much of it to suit his own theology. He did not, however, write anything now in the New Testament.
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Old 11-13-2006, 06:41 PM   #53
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How do you know the Gospels do not speak of Paul? Doesn't it strike you that the Gerasene Demoniac is a representation of Paul, who according to legend was struck by the Lord not far from that spot. And in the 19th century Volkmar(?) argued that Mark's Jesus was actually Paul. Mark is full of Paul, including shared citations, Pauline thinking....

Paul is present, I would argue, just not as a character.
While seeing many rosey overlaps between Paul and Mark I still feel a few thorns that keep me from embracing the links too easily. I'd appreciate your thoughts on one: Mark's Jesus is essentially an absent Jesus -- he hides from people once he does his thing (1:38, 13:21, 16:6) -- and the gospel tells followers to ignore those who say they can be with him in the here and now (Kelber); Paul's Jesus is seems rather to be one of those Mark warns against, one who is "here there and everywhere", "in him", "in believers".

While I think I can rationalize this difference I am less sure I can find direct textual support for any of my proposed rationalizations.

Am I making a false dichotomy between Mark's Jesus and Paul's? If so, on what grounds exactly? Is this a pointless discussion given we have to accept that the texts we are dealing with are at the very least late second century modifications of whatever they originally said?
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Old 11-13-2006, 07:20 PM   #54
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Only if Paul had claimed he saw Jesus before the ascension. But Paul says nothing about *when* he saw Jesus. Nor does he say anything about specific about what he actually saw.

In the gospels and Acts, the disciples obviously saw Jesus in the flesh. Taking the authors at their word, the appearances were obviously not just visions. For all we get from Paul, what he saw, if anything, almost certainly was just a vision.
Paul not only claims to have seen his Lord Jesus but says he received the gospel (authority?) from him. It was not a vision. He warns the Colossians against 'dwelling on visions' in 2:18.

Acts 1:3, being long after Paul's death, IMHO was written to limit anybody's claim to apostolic authority other than through the 11 from which Peter was the one singled out as the one who the sheep should follow. Was somebody afraid of Paul's churches becoming too influential?
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Old 11-13-2006, 09:28 PM   #55
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For all practical purposes, it was Peter who founded Christianity, and Paul who shaped the mainstream.
I'm not aware of any credible evidence that Peter founded Christianity (or for that matter, that he even actually existed). Are there references to Peter in the undisputedly authentic Pauline letters?
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Old 11-13-2006, 10:44 PM   #56
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This is BS. Who cares what the canon says? Why do you insist that 4 different writers need to agree with canon? Whatever Paul experienced was not during Jesus' lifetime or before an ascention, and even according to Paul's work it may have been nothing more than a vision or even just an internal revelation that occurred sometime afterwards. If you want to insist that Acts is correct, then do you want to insist that Luke should have included the appearance to Paul in the gospel of Luke also? Your requirements are unreasonable. A later--probably years later--light and voice from heaven from Jesus doesn't quite fit into an accounting of the life and death and resurrection of Jesus. Sure, one could include it but it is in no way a requirement that should be insisted upon. Of course, there is also the possibility that they didn't like Paul or believe his story of Jesus' appearance too.
You aren't being very coherent, and are obviously upset. On the one hand you wish to live and die apologizing for the canonical gospels and on the other hand say "who cares".

I don't agree with any of the mythical canon. It's all hogwash. But you have these extrapordinarily apologetic constructs for why not one single person in the gospel narratives has some historical anchor placing them in continuity with events that happened after.

Cite for me where Paul places his encounter with Jesus in relation to the alleged crucifiction.

You can't. And so you make it up to suit your fancy. Paul is by all accounts the first writer of biblical material - so you are going to have a hard time arguing that this is some encounter remote in time.



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I don't need to because I'm not instisting the gospels were written by historians, who think and write like historians. Are you? If so, that only points out why you make assumptions and place requirements that are unreasonable. If you consider the possibility that the writers were simply telling their story about Jesus as they understood him, then why place any more requirement on them that you would on a person who is writing a letter to a friend. Why subject them to historical requirements?
Of course my argument is that they are not history. But you sure think they are.


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The story seems quite coherent and understandable to the millions of people who have read them.
This is does not even rise to argumentum ad populum since we are not discussing whether they are understandable. or coherent in that sense. Obviously you do not wish to stick to the topic.



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Of course there have been billions of writings over the years that talk about past events that don't have the kinds of anchors you require in order to consider the events to not be mythical.
Rephrase this in the positive voice. There's a double negative in a run-on sentence and I am not sure what the heck you are trying to say.

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In any case, since the gospel writers--according to you--were just making everything up, why couldn't they have just made up the kind of anchors you are wanting to see?
That is exceedingly elementary.

Because anything they state which allegedly anchors events and people to a bona-fide historical person living in the alleged time frame they were written is too easily falsified.

If these were written, for argument's sake, in 80 CE and a reference in 80 CE is made to existing people - then those references must be factual or the lie is immediately exposed.

That is why there are no such references.


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Arguments from silence of the type you seem to like are riddled with assumptions and guesswork and often what sounds logical really isn't very realistic because it works within a tunnel vision.
What argument from silence?

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There's no contradition in such statements. Both can be true.
No, you can't simultansously ridicule the idea of historical anchors and also insist they are there. Talk about emotion driving your responses!


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Well, you can believe that as you and some Protestants wish. But clearly Peter is being singled out as significant to the formation of the church via the power of his faith. Not necessarily a Pope, as has been the historical interpretation (why do you think Matthew included the extra language as opposed to Mark anyway?), but certainly a founding block. So, this is a valid anchor and you are simply refusing to acknowledge it. Your emotional bias is obvious.
Emotion? Har! That's pretty funny.

You have yet to demonstrate anything here other than the vague idea Peter might be "important" - not any actual historical reference to something peter did.


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Like it is really hard to find... ok whatever, try verses 18 through 23. You appear to be intentionally evading two more examples of anchoring that I've given you.
No problem. You don't have anything so you just want to be coy and pretend there is something there which isn't.

If there was wording in there doing specifically the kind of historical anchoring we are discussing you would have quoted it.

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Wrong. I gave 3 examples.
You have yet to give a single one. You just wave your hands and say "it's in there".

Quote it.


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The lineages were written to show that Jesus was from descended from David as was expected of the Messiah.
See the hypocrisy. Oh, how important it is to "prove" a historical lineage by fabricating a line that cannot be checked since it is too ancient (in 2nd century already too ancient)

Oh - but we need to ridicule any bona-fide demonstration of historicity by linking forward to people that actually exist.

heh.

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What do you want now--a discussion of all of the history of the world prior to Jesus--setting up an complete explanation of all happenings that occurred from Adam through Jesus, since the names are all mentioned?
Looks like you're coming unglued there, buddy.

I just want even one or two generations forward. That's all. Such a trifle.


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So now you agree there are anchors to history? Thanks for just contradicting yourself.
I've been pretty careful to stick with the OP - originally that the person of Paul is not mentioned. I expanded that to include the complete lack of historical continuity through PEOPLE that did things of any consequence.

You were insisting that there can be no mention of anything whatever after the ascension. So I disproved that by demonstrating they do. The destruction of the temple is supposedly prophesized.

So why none about PEOPLE? Because those are so easily falsified. And yet, history is basically what PEOPLE do.


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That's not only a false statement <edit>--as I've given you 3 mentions of 2 people, but it is also really bad logic to conclude that they therefore must be ficticious.. You can have the last word because I can see have already made up your mind and aren't really trying to have a discussion.
There are lots of names mentioned. Not just three. The requirement is not that there are names of people in the New Testament. Are you really that desperate to avoid the discussion?

Yes, Ted - there are names of people. But there are no demonstrations of historical anchors providing continuity with the time frame the gospels are supposedly written.

In part you are avoiding that very problem - when they are written. So you get to hold your cards there while arguing mutually exclusive positions in the meantime.

Well, my point has been made nevertheless and I do see there is no hope for any kind of genuine discussion.

So with kind regards, g'bye.
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Old 11-14-2006, 04:15 AM   #57
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I'm not aware of any credible evidence that Peter founded Christianity (or for that matter, that he even actually existed). Are there references to Peter in the undisputedly authentic Pauline letters?
I think you may be employing a too-harsh standard of evidence, but luckily for you there are such references: In his Epistle to the Galatians (c. 54 AD) Paul talks at length about Peter.
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Old 11-14-2006, 04:16 AM   #58
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I do see there is no hope for any kind of genuine discussion.
No kidding.
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Old 11-14-2006, 06:17 AM   #59
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In a recent publication, Joseph B. Tyson argues that Luke/Acts were second century works written to refute Marcion.

I have not completed reading the book yet, but here are a couple of points gleened so far.

The author of Acts knew of, but suppressed, knowledge of the Pauline Epistles. Indeed, the author was set to undermine the epistles.

For example, Tyson notes that the author of Acts 15 knew very well the epistle to the Galatians, but turned it on its head. The words of Paul are placed in the mouth of Peter in the speech of 15:7-11. But it is not just Paul who is mouthed, it is the Deutero Paul of Ephesians. (e.g. saved instead of justified v. 11). This implies that the author of Luke/Acts had knowledge of the Pauline writings as a collection; a collection already gone through the filter of the Deutero-Pauline school.

It is argued that Marcion had a gospel that predates canonical Luke, but I have not reached that part yet.

This struggle is placed in the second century, as a reaction to Marcion's postition that Paul was the exclusive apostle. Dr. Tyson doesn't go so far as to embrace the views of the Tübingen school, but this is a significant improvement on traditional datings.

Marcion and Luke-Acts: A Defining Struggle, by Joseph B. Tyson. University of South Carolina Press (October 15, 2006)
ISBN: 1570036500
(or via: amazon.co.uk)

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Old 11-14-2006, 07:45 AM   #60
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I think you may be employing a too-harsh standard of evidence, but luckily for you there are such references: In his Epistle to the Galatians (c. 54 AD) Paul talks at length about Peter.
I went back and reread the entirety of Galatians, and you are correct that Paul talks about Peter, but only briefly, and certainly not in a flattering way. Paul excluded Peter from the list of those he considered pillars of the church, so certainly Paul provides no evidence that Peter founded Christianity.

My reading of Galatians is that Cephas, John, and James are the leaders of the Jerusalem church. There was a conflict between Paul's vision of Christianity and Peter's, and so the pillars told Paul to quit trying to spread his version to Jews. Paul begrudgingly accepted this, and went back and wrote Galatians to try "go around" the 3 pillars.
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