Freethought & Rationalism ArchiveThe archives are read only. |
10-21-2008, 10:36 AM | #31 |
Veteran Member
Join Date: Feb 2003
Location: Earth
Posts: 1,443
|
Or, we can accept your explanation: Luke knew that Zacharias and Elizabeth did not have an ancestor named John. That is also valid. Is that what you think?
|
10-21-2008, 10:50 AM | #32 |
Veteran Member
Join Date: May 2005
Location: Midwest
Posts: 4,787
|
|
10-21-2008, 11:41 AM | #33 | |
Banned
Join Date: Apr 2004
Location: Alberta
Posts: 11,885
|
Quote:
|
|
10-21-2008, 12:38 PM | #34 | |
Banned
Join Date: Apr 2004
Location: Alberta
Posts: 11,885
|
Quote:
|
|
10-21-2008, 05:41 PM | #35 | |
Contributor
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: nowhere
Posts: 15,747
|
Quote:
a, b, l*; Irarm Orlat mss Nic"a" and "b" are the Latin mss. I guess l* is as well. "Irarm" is an Armenian translation of Irenaeus. "Orlat mss" -- Latin mss of Origen. "Nic" is Nicetas of Remesiana (given date as "[dagger]p. 414" -- which I guess means "died post 414CE"). spin |
|
10-21-2008, 06:44 PM | #36 |
Veteran Member
Join Date: Mar 2003
Location: Calgary, Alberta Canada
Posts: 2,612
|
Huh. I just checked half a dozen commentaries on Lk.1, particular strange to me is that nobody seems to have asked this question. Two of the most influential commentary series, WBC and Hermeneia, are aware of the curiousity, but encourage the reader to ignore it--it's unimportant, and just a sign of Elizabeth's election and obedience.
I think you might be on to something, spin. Regards, Rick Sumner |
10-22-2008, 01:07 PM | #37 | |
Veteran Member
Join Date: Sep 2004
Location: Birmingham UK
Posts: 4,876
|
Quote:
Andrew Criddle |
|
10-22-2008, 08:45 PM | #38 | |
Contributor
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: nowhere
Posts: 15,747
|
Quote:
You need a specialized degree in order to use the book! spin |
|
10-24-2008, 09:41 AM | #39 |
Veteran Member
Join Date: Mar 2003
Location: Nazareth
Posts: 2,357
|
Luukee! Ya Got Sum Splainin Ta Do.
JW:
The meaning of a name is normally a key component of Infancy Narratives in the Jewish Bible with an emphasis on Revelation. "Luke" in general and specifically in her Infancy Narratives is moving emphasis from Revelation to supposed historical witness. Note that "Luke" does not provide any meaning to the name "Jesus" either. The main modification "Luke" is making to the standard Infancy narrative is moving it from a private revelation to a public witnessing. The significance of John's name is not that it has any special meaning but that neighbors and relatives witness that Elizabeth and Zechariah independently had the same name. Jesus' name doesn't have any significance, it's his birth that does. The Annunciation of the birth is made to Shepherds who witness that a child was just born in Bethlehem. The priMary source for the JtB IN is the Hannah/Samuel IN. "Hannah" just happens to have the same Hebrew root as John/YoHann (Grace). If there was an original JtB IN that "Luke" used as a source it could have included the meaning of the name "John" = God & Grace but I don't think "Luke" would have chosen not to use the meaning of the name because of what it meant. "Luke" may have been reacting to previous Gospels like "Matthew" here knowing that claims of the prediction of Jesus' name in the Jewish Bible, such as Isaiah 7:14, were weak or even wrong, and therefore exorcising the name meaning from her IN. And if Jesus' name had no significance here than John's should not either from a literary standpoint. Joseph |
10-24-2008, 11:33 AM | #40 | ||
Contributor
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: nowhere
Posts: 15,747
|
Quote:
Quote:
It is Hannah who makes the prayer of thanks that would be the model for Elisabeth's in the original JtB source, given by someone in the Lucan tradition to Mary. The annunciation that explained to her the name of her son has been taken away (and given to Mary in order to construct the Jesus infancy story through John's). That's probably why the text has Elisabeth providing the name "John", as Gabriel had given it to her in the original. spin |
||
Thread Tools | Search this Thread |
|