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Old 12-23-2006, 03:17 PM   #61
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Maybe you have some details?

Chris has been unable to produce any. Neither has Jeffery.
Oh .. so it's now "details" that haven't been produced, not, as originally asked for, names of scholars who have dealt with the "arguments" that Peshitta primacists put forward in support of their claims.

More goal post shifting and more refusal to be responsible fot your claims.evasion.

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Funny aint it, here on infidels, the supposed home of evidence and all that.
What's funny is that you have been one of the worst offenders against the board's "house rules".

May we finally know whether you can actually back up your original assertion that the "the arguments" that Peshitta primacists put forward in support of their claims have never been subjected to scholarly review? Do you or do you not know for a fact -- from your personal, direct, first hand contact with the works of the scholars I referred you to -- that the scholars I referred you to have not done so? Have you or have you not read the works of the scholars I referred you to?

JG
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Old 12-23-2006, 03:32 PM   #62
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Oh .. so it's now "details" that haven't been produced,

HNow you are getting it Jeffrey. The evidence consists of details. There is hope for you yet. :devil1:
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Old 12-23-2006, 04:03 PM   #63
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HNow you are getting it Jeffrey. The evidence consists of details. There is hope for you yet. :devil1:
But alas - as is shown by your persistence in claiming knowledge you do not possess and in your studied avoidance of questions which, if you honestly answered them, would show that you have no grounds for your claims -- not for you.

yasaptz

But even so -- I ask once more:

Can you can you can you not back up your original assertion that the "the arguments" that Peshitta primacists put forward in support of their claims have never been subjected to scholarly review, yes or no.

Do you or do you not know for a fact -- that is, from your personal, direct, first hand contact with the works of the scholars I referred you to -- that the scholars I referred you to have not done so?

Have you or have you not read the works of the scholars I referred you to?

JG
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Old 12-23-2006, 05:10 PM   #64
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One more time.

1.There are were two communities which used Syriac.
(a) One community became the SOC
(b)The other became to COE

2. The SOC was centred in Byzantine

3. The COE in Persia

4.There is heavy greek influence on SOC fathers.

5. There is not heavy greek influence on COE fathers.

You are confusing the issue by grouping them all togehter as "Syriac fathers".You need to distinguish between the two groups.
The only confusion I see here is you talking as though you have something relevant to say in your attempted hair-splitting over the phrase Syrian fathers. Please don't impose your own linguistic inadequacies on me. You continue to insist an act of grouping onto me. If I say sundry Syrian fathers, you'd find some silly excuse for me to ungroup them. Please be reasonable.

This distinction, however, between the church of the east and the rest of the Aramaic speaking communities is not very meaningful in the 4th and 5th centuries at least until the Sassanids took the christians of the east under their protection. However, when you look at a map, much of what you would consider the church of the east at the beginning of the fifth century was in what is now Turkey with Edessa, Nisibis and Mopsuestia, so your notion of Persian is only political, definitely not geographical. The fathers who had influence in the church of the east were Theodore of Mopsuestia, Nestorius, people who were Greek trained. Your performance here is for a later period than that which we are talking about.

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Well to properly analyse this we should mke the distiction between Syriac texts as i have done above. But, leaving that aside for the moment.
I am sure you are aware of the debates in this area.
Your distinction at this time is meaningless.

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The oldest greek is merely the oldest surviving greek,...
Yes, I've heard this mantra before.

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Originally Posted by judge
...some geographies are more conducive to preservation.
It is an important to note the age of suviving texts are and one must consider it , but one cannot absolutize it.
Texts survive much better in dry climates. Your point is woth noting but is not insurmountable.
In other words there is an explanation
In other words you have no evidence for any of what you are trying to argue.

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Originally Posted by judge
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There is no Syrus Sinaiticus of Paul's letters.
1. I tell you there is no OS of pauls letters.

2. Despite me telling you this , you ask for the translation of romans 5:14 from the OS (otherwise called vetus syra).

3. I point out your mistake again and you come back and tell me there is no Os version (Syrus Sinaiticus) of of Pauls letters.
As utter confusion still reigns in your head, you confuse Vetus Syra, a text type or family, with a manuscript, Syrus Sinaiticus. It is pure folly to assume that Vetus Syra didn't contain any other text considered scripture. (You can use your own arguments against yourself here and save me the effort.)

So, if you can't provide an OS version of the citied text, you'll assume against your own logic that there wasn't any.


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Old 12-23-2006, 05:23 PM   #65
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This distinction, however, between the church of the east and the rest of the Aramaic speaking communities is not very meaningful in the 4th and 5th centuries
Utter crap.

Here is a reference. Concerning rabbula the "Tryrant of Edessa", who perseucted the COE.

If rabbula persecuted them how can you suggest there was no distinction.

Your assertion is crap.

(c.f., Han J. W. Drijvers in Journal of Early Christian Studies 4.2 (1996) pp 235-248 , Johns Hopkins University Press.)

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The fathers who had influence in the church of the east were Theodore of Mopsuestia, Nestorius, people who were Greek trained.
Well I'm sure you aren't going to listen...byt for anyone esle this is just wrong. As I pointed out earlier nestorious wansn't even a COE monk. He was from Constantinople.

For anyone else...

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John Nestorius was not an Assyrian nor did he know Syriac language. He was a native of Antioch and Patriarch of Constantinople from 428 to 431 A.D. His rival Cyril was Patriarch of Alexandria. Therefore, the members of the Church say that they do not have anything to do with the Nestorian controversy. It was several years later and even after the death of Nestorius in 451 A.D. that the Christians of the Persian Empire heard about the controversy. They decreed that the stand taken by Nestorius was in agreement with the view always maintained by the Church of the East.

As a result of the persecution of the followers of Nestorius, many Christians had to flee from the now Christian Roman Empire and found refuge among the followers of this Church.

From..History of the Nestorian Church
Again , Spin you perform quite poorly when you leave your strong areas.

But i wll say this for you, at least you have ago, try to provide explanations a nd stick your neck out.
In this instance you are just putting your foot in your mouth...again
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Old 12-23-2006, 05:56 PM   #66
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Utter crap.

Here is a reference. Concerning rabbula the "Tryrant of Edessa", who perseucted the COE.

If rabbula persecuted them how can you suggest there was no distinction.

Your assertion is crap.

(c.f., Han J. W. Drijvers in Journal of Early Christian Studies 4.2 (1996) pp 235-248 , Johns Hopkins University Press.)
Still confused, eh judge? Who did Rabbula "persecute" exactly? Wouldn't have been Nestorians, would it?? Nestorians were perhaps solely from the church of the east??? You are hanging from the flimsiest of threads.

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Originally Posted by judge
Well I'm sure you aren't going to listen...byt for anyone esle this is just wrong. As I pointed out earlier nestorious wansn't even a COE monk. He was from Constantinople.
Tell me something I didn't know. The point is that he was popular for the church of the east, along with Greek thinkers.

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Originally Posted by judge
For anyone else...
... who wants to follow judge's confusion...

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Originally Posted by judge
Again , Spin you perform quite poorly when you leave your strong areas.
Judging by your standards, I don't think one can make much of this pronouncement.

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Originally Posted by judge
But i wll say this for you, at least you have ago, try to provide explanations a nd stick your neck out.
In this instance you are just putting your foot in your mouth...again
No, in your mouth... again.

You continue to spout unsupported claptrap and pretend that you know something about what you are trying to talk about. It's quite a goose chase. I still want to know what you think you can debate about.


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Old 12-23-2006, 06:09 PM   #67
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You continue to spout unsupported claptrap and pretend that you know something about what you are trying to talk about. It's quite a goose chase. I still want to know what you think you can debate about.


spin
OK I will debate you on the following.

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Originally Posted by spin
The indication on the Peshitta is that it is a later Syriac text, ie citations of it don't appear before Rabbula
You can stand by your comment about the peshitta not being cited before rabbula.

I will argue that the peshitta is cited before Rabbula.
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Old 12-23-2006, 06:48 PM   #68
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OK I will debate you on the following.



You can stand by your comment about the peshitta not being cited before rabbula.

I will argue that the peshitta is cited before Rabbula.
What happened to the claim that the Peshitta was the original NT text?

JG
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Old 12-23-2006, 07:19 PM   #69
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OK I will debate you on the following.
Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
The indication on the Peshitta is that it is a later Syriac text, ie citations of it don't appear before Rabbula
You can stand by your comment about the peshitta not being cited before rabbula.
I need to make a distinction with your provocative rewording of what I said. If the Peshitta is a development through revision of the Vetus Syra, how do you distinguish what is and what is not Vetus Syra? When you state that my comment that the Peshitta is not "cited before rabbula", allows you to simply claim that as the text is the same as the Peshitta, then obviously it is the Peshitta, which simply skirts the problem of a Peshitta developed from the Vetus Syra.

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Originally Posted by judge
I will argue that the peshitta is cited before Rabbula.
That was not a central issue of your pack of lunacies. You were trying to claim (correct me where wrong) that
  1. the Greek christian testament is a translation of the Peshitta, and that
  2. the Peshitta was the first Syriac collection of christian sacred texts.
Clutching at Rabbula is merely another of your running off topic. Please try to stay on the course.


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Old 12-24-2006, 01:10 AM   #70
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I need to make a distinction with your provocative rewording of what I said. If the Peshitta is a development through revision of the Vetus Syra, how do you distinguish what is and what is not Vetus Syra? When you state that my comment that the Peshitta is not "cited before rabbula", allows you to simply claim that as the text is the same as the Peshitta, then obviously it is the Peshitta, which simply skirts the problem of a Peshitta developed from the Vetus Syra.

Spin , it is very simple. You made the following comment.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Spin
The indication on the Peshitta is that it is a later Syriac text, ie citations of it don't appear before Rabbula...

You are goading me for a debate, on more than one occaision in this thread.

But when I call your bluff ..well....you wont debate.

Look I dont really care one way or the other. I have much better things to do, and you probably do to. But if you do want to debate or even discuss this then I am at your disposal.

But to answer your query.
We compare Aphrahat both with the peshitta and with the Vetus Syra.
It is that simple.
Anyway, all the best and if you are having a break this time of year, as many of us are then I wish you a happy and safe time.

added in edit:
Jeffery if you are reading this I extend the same wishes to you. If you are having a break I hope you have a happy and safe time.
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