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Old 06-26-2006, 03:38 PM   #31
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This thread settles it, if I ever have something important to say to future generations I will at least scribe it into clay tablets and fire them, and if it's really important, I'll have it graven in a basalt slab 20' tall. Oh that the Ancient of Days had such foresight.
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Old 06-26-2006, 04:05 PM   #32
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Veru thank you guys !
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Old 06-26-2006, 04:08 PM   #33
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Iasion
It should be obvious that the NUMBER of copies attesting to a work gives no support to the truth of the contents - yet apologists repeatedly bring this point up as if it proves something.
I cannot speak for all apologists everywhere, but I believe at least some of them bring up the sheer number of biblical manuscripts in order to show that we have a good shot at establishing what the originals said, not necessarily in order to show that we have a good shot at establishing how true the contents of those originals (or of the copies) may be.

Ben.
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Old 06-26-2006, 04:23 PM   #34
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Quote:
Originally Posted by one allegiance
Further, the Bible has text copies CLOSEST to the original text than any other ancient text there is...ever.
http://www.carm.org/questions/Jesus_myth.htm
This statement is utterly and completely nonsensical. How on earth could you possibly know that if we don't have the originals to with?
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Old 06-26-2006, 04:31 PM   #35
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Iasion
It should be obvious that the NUMBER of copies attesting to a work gives no support to the truth of the contents - yet apologists repeatedly bring this point up as if it proves something.
It should also be noted that the works of Sophocles, Plato, or Homer are not being touted as the literal "Word of God," and promoted as an infallible source of both spiritual and historical truth.
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Old 06-26-2006, 04:45 PM   #36
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Greetings,

Quote:
Originally Posted by Ben C Smith
I cannot speak for all apologists everywhere, but I believe at least some of them bring up the sheer number of biblical manuscripts in order to show that we have a good shot at establishing what the originals said, not necessarily in order to show that we have a good shot at establishing how true the contents of those originals (or of the copies) may be.
Ben.
Indeed.

But this distinction is often blurred - e.g. the page one allegiance linked talks about the NT being "reliable" (other pages say "valid".)

What does "reliable" mean?
The implication is that the contents can be relied upon (to be true.)


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Old 06-26-2006, 04:47 PM   #37
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Quote:
Originally Posted by RUmike
This statement is utterly and completely nonsensical. How on earth could you possibly know that if we don't have the originals to with?
Indeed.

Consider the Behistun inscription :
http://www.livius.org/be-bm/behistun/behistun01.html

We still have the ORIGINAL from 25 centuries ago - long before the NT.

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Old 06-26-2006, 06:40 PM   #38
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Quote:
Originally Posted by RUmike
the earliest manuscripts we have (which frequently have many differences between them.)
As Bart Ehrman puts it in Misquoting Jesus,
Quote:
there are more differences among our manuscripts than there are words in the New Testament.
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Old 06-26-2006, 09:15 PM   #39
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Quote:
Originally Posted by S.C.Carlson
Why is it written in Greek then?

Stephen
Sorry , right you are I mindlessly copied that from here
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Old 06-26-2006, 09:40 PM   #40
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Quote:
Originally Posted by RUmike
This statement is utterly and completely nonsensical. How on earth could you possibly know that if we don't have the originals to with?

Ummm...because we know when the original was WRITTEN. And we found texts closest to THAT time. We dont have to have the original texts to know what approx. time period they were first written. Paul, Peter and others wrote them AFTER Jesus died...so any before about 80 AD. I don't know the exact projected dates of the 4 gospels but Im pretty sure none were before 80 AD.
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