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05-10-2004, 09:21 PM | #51 |
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You ask how we (that is to say "Mark") could know about the story if the women remained silent.
That is only a problem if the story is nonfiction. If it is a work of fiction, then no explanation is necessary. Another poster on here came up with the intriguing theory that the writer of Mark put himself into the story as a character, that it is he who is the young man in the robe standing in the empty tomb (and, perhaps, also the enigmatic naked man in the Garden of Gethsemene scene). It's an unprovable theory, but I find it intriguing. |
05-10-2004, 11:04 PM | #52 | |
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I reject the notion that gospel errors can be rationalized as human scribes failing to understand God's revealed message. Maybe murky theological points can escape by that loophole, but not the concrete gospels. |
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05-10-2004, 11:29 PM | #53 | |
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05-11-2004, 12:15 AM | #54 |
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As I understand it, inerrant means far more than merely factually correct, it means theologically sound and having absolute moral authority. I can understand how the latter two categories might be hard for human scribes to understand and communicate, but the "factually correct" category is a minimum requirement for an inerrant document.
I am not considering here the question "did the disciples witness a miraculously empty tomb, angelic visitations, and appearences of the risen Jesus?" If that were the question, I wouldn't cavil over factual discrepancies, I would shrug and say, as you did, that humans are lousy at observing and remembering facts. The question I'm considering is, "are the gospels absolutely correct in the facts they relate?" If they are, then they must also be consistent with each other, they must describe the same events. How would a human being produce an inerrant document? Only under the direct inspiration of God. The gospel writers were not (according to the doctrine of inspiration) operating at the mercy of witnesses with faulty memories alone, they were operating under the direct guidance of God. |
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