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Old 09-28-2011, 03:27 AM   #31
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Under Doherty's scenario, mythicism had evolved into docetism or some other gnostic heresy by the second century. The orthodox never met a mythicist.
Mythers morphing into Docetics or Gnostics.

Then....there is never going to be any evidence?

This does explain the lack of 'mythicist heresy'.

But in the absence of any evidence for the morph, it does not, it seems, add anything to the hypothesis that there ever were mythicists.

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Under other scenarios, The orthodox just never bothered to understand the gnostics.
I have no problem with speculative scenarios. When they are unevidenced, I would like good reasons to think them likely, that's all.


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Check out Michael Turton's Historical Commentary on the Gospel of Mark. I got the concept from him. He spent some time tracing every element in Mark back to the Septuagint.
I will do that. Going off line now.

I must say that I do tend to feel I don't need anyone to tell me that a crucifixion is not in the Septaguint. Unless I am not reading the right translation, it simply isn't there. It is completely lacking in Psalm 22. Isiah 53 appears (in your previous link) to refer to 'stripes' and in the translation I had been using, to 'pierced and crushed'. I'm a bit baffled as to why the apologist cited 'stripes' and not 'pierced'?

Not only that, but it was my impression that these passages were not seen by Jews as being about a messiah. That is not to say that they weren't pressed into service, but I do find the idea that they were pressed into service around the time of (or after) an alleged crucifixion to appear more like the result of someone going back into the Septaguint to find something which might explain an unexpected event than someone finding what must surely be described as an unusually (for Jews) distasteful and contrary denouement for a messiah (a mental stumbling block if you like) completely 'unaided by any actual events' as it were, and then afterwards also claiming the event had happened, in any location or realm.

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You clearly implied that Doherty was not someone to be associated with.
Maybe I implied that his hypothesis was not strong, IMO, but that is not the man himself. And I didn't say he was wrong. I said his hypothesis was, for me, 'possible but not likely'. I do my best to appraise Doherty as objectively as possible. I have not always disagreed with him either. I just find his conclusions to be very unpersuasive. He says this is because my mind is locked. If he is trying to do an impression of a dogmatist in saying that, he is doing a good job of it. :]

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Countering mythicism is not making it more orthodox?
It would be, if that's what was being done.

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We only know some of what their enemies decided to write about them. I hope you don't assume that it's trustworthy or complete.
I certainly do not. I would expect it to be 'winner's bias'. Very much so. The good thing about this bias, which is not the case when reading other ancient accounts (of, say, battles, or political inter-group struggles) is that it is a clearly signalled bias. The thing is, imperfect as they may be, what we know (or can reasonably deduce) about heresies sort has to be read via this evidence, as best it can be.

But the general comment 'expect bias' is very much like the general comment 'expect interpolations'. Neither, of themselves, sends us off in the particular direction of MJ (or NEP), especially in the absence of any such heresy.

And that is where we should be discussing what 'clues' there are that this was the case. Even if these clues are not conclusive, we might ask whether they are somewhat indicative.

Incidentally, what do you make of the Nag Hamadi Codices? Gnostic, or not? They had a copy of Plato in there, as I recall.
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Old 09-28-2011, 03:46 AM   #32
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Why would who do what? I can't figure out your objection.

If you are asking why the orthodox did not ask that question of the gnostic mythicists, we know the answer. They read the gospels as allegorical stories, and they wrote their own gospels.
What he's asking seems very clear to me. I restated it myself. It seems odd that you don't understand what he is saying?



TedM is correct. It is merely your opinion that there is no evidence. And your opinion is not, in my opinion, a particularly convincing opinion. Paul is littered with HJ references from start to finish. It is bio detail that is (mostly) not there, that's all.




I agree with a few others here, Toto. This sounds like it was overstating something. Even when you clarified, you still said ALL the Jesus story was in the Septaguint. Is this the case? Is there, for example, a crucifixion in the Septaguint?

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The Jesus that you can derive from Paul is minimalist.
Fair point. But he's a minimal HJ.

And incidentally, Doherty is way out on a limb, from any rational standpoint. He's in the category of 'possible, but unlikely', IMO. I hope you're not a fan.

Unless, regarding Paul, as some have said, the epistles were so revamped that the original was almost unrecognizeable. You yourself have said that you think 50% (as a guess) is not original, though you never really said which 50% or on what basis you feel you know. At one point, you referred me to DCH's scenario, which I did not find at all reassuring. You also referred me to William O Walker, but he doesn't suggest anything like that extent and in any case appears well aware that he is being speculative (as was Price, in one of the first links you provided to me, way back). Yet...you....come across as much more heavily leaning one way?

Is it, Toto, actually the case that what you are saying is that you believe the truth was covered up so we can't see it? In both cases, I mean, Paul being revamped and myther heresies being erased? It all sounds like a complicated conspiracy theory. I was hoping there would be more evidence.
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Paul is littered with HJ references from start to finish. It is bio detail that is (mostly) not there, that's all.
It's that very lack of bio that is his down fall. Matter of fact its the very lack of bio in the entire NT that is the downfall of the entire book. That said no writer of the HT ever claimed to be writing a history of any jesus. Matter of fact they knew little about a man they supposedly followed...in other words they wrote what they imagined not what they saw.
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Old 09-28-2011, 04:15 AM   #33
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'Lack of bio' is not 'myth'.

Doherty's problem, in a nutshell (and I will only attempt a nutshell here, because I will inevitably leave out certain other things, which I have listed on another thread) is basically twofold (as I see it) with his raw material for 'Paul'. This is what Paul contains (in it's extant form):

1. Many references to things which seem to refer to earthly events and an earthly central character, and a rationale to go with this (what sort of basis is it for humans to expect resurrection if some heavenly entity only gets as far down as an upper realm and 'dies' there and floats back up again? The rationale almost requires a 'human' - or humanesque - template, as I see it, for it to have any potency for the expectations of earthly converts and believers)

2. No clear references to upper realms and no myth narrative worth talking about. Except when 'Paul' is talking about a post-death figure, in which case, it's hardly either surprising or controversial. Even here, an intermediate upper realm is virtually unevidenced.

That's it. Bar explaining away as many items in 1. as possible by pointing to possible ambiguities.

Compare this with Ascension of Isiah. Here, I could understand the citation of narrative having been thought of as having taken place in upper realms.

This is all getting off topic though. :]

Btw, there is no lack of bio in the NT. :]
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Old 09-28-2011, 04:45 AM   #34
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We only know about heresies and heretics (before and after Nicaea) largely through the writings of their enemies, the orthodox canon-following heresiologists. Relatively recent manuscript and archaeological discoveries of the writings of the heretics have redressed this balance.
Except one? The Nag Hamadi bunch?


Can I ask you one general thing about the Nag Hamadi Codices? If you read that lot as mythicists, what is the Gospel of Thomas doing in their library?

The quick and fast answer to your question might be obtained by reading through the following two references related directly to your question.


Two Gnostic Gospels
Robert M. Grant, Journal of Biblical Literature > Vol. 79, No. 1, Mar., 1960

On the Gospel of Thomas:

Quote:

"... a carefully selected announcement of basic Gnostic doctrines. His monotonous repetition of the phrase "Jesus said", does not prove that his gospel is Christian ....[...]... the environment in which Thomas did his work is almost certainly Gnostic. Indeed, if we make a point-by-point comparison between Thomas and the Naassenes described in the fifth book of Hippolytus's "Refutation", we may well conclude that his gospel not only was used by them but was also composed in support of their doctrines. ......It is important as a witness to the development of Gnostic Christology, not to the teaching of the historical Jesus.


The Naming of the Naassenes: Hippolytus, Refutatio V. 6-10 as Hieros Logos
Mark J. Edwards, Zeitschrift für Papyrologie und Epigraphik, Bd. 112, (1996) (pp. 74-80)

Quote:
"Were Gnostics in antiquity ever pagan?

It has generally been assumed that they do not belong to the history of Classical religion, but some at least belong to the history of its explanation. I shall argue here that a text, which in its present form can be treated as the earliest extant document of Gnostic Christianity, began as an exposition of the Eleusinian mysteries. I shall not infer that our author was a pagan; since, indeed, the gnosis he taught was not so much a revelation as an instrument for interpreting all previous revelations, I shall not attempt to show that he worshipped any gods at all.


[Concludes ...]

"The gnosis of the earliest Gnostics, therefore, would appear to be: not a mystery, but a studious collocation of the mysteries; a philological discipline which aims to be the master, not the servant, of philosophy; a parliament of symbols which does not proclaim a new code of belief."
If this doesn't make sense ask more questions.

Finally I noticed this above ....

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Originally Posted by archibald View Post
Incidentally, what do you make of the Nag Hamadi Codices? Gnostic, or not? They had a copy of Plato in there, as I recall.
I have had a very close look at the Coptic version of Plato.

Comparing Plato' Republic in the Nag Hammadi coptic to the Original Greek

Quote:

The editor of the NHC may have lost contact with a living Greek Alexandrian philosophical tradition because it was no longer supported by the Roman Emperors from 324 CE. The editor and his scribes obviously preferred to be hundreds of miles up the Nile River from the city of Alexandria.

It is suggested that what academics perceive as a "mistranslation" is in fact a purposeful rendition of Plato, adapted for the political reality of Greek philosophy during the rules of Constantine and Constantius II, from 324 to 360 CE.

The extract is "ineptly translated", according to Howard M Jackson, and "hopelessly confused", "a distastrous failure", and
"a product of an intellectually unsophisticated person who has lost contact with a living philosophical tradition", according to James Brasher, who notes that "Plato's words have been distorted and misunderstood so badly that they are hardly recognisable.

~ Lion and Human in "Gospel of Thomas" Logion 7
Andrew Crislip, SBL 126/3 (2007)
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Old 09-28-2011, 05:30 AM   #35
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Originally Posted by mountainman View Post
The quick and fast answer to your question might be obtained by reading through the following two references related directly to your question.


Two Gnostic Gospels
Robert M. Grant, Journal of Biblical Literature > Vol. 79, No. 1, Mar., 1960

On the Gospel of Thomas:

Quote:

"... a carefully selected announcement of basic Gnostic doctrines. His monotonous repetition of the phrase "Jesus said", does not prove that his gospel is Christian ....[...]... the environment in which Thomas did his work is almost certainly Gnostic. Indeed, if we make a point-by-point comparison between Thomas and the Naassenes described in the fifth book of Hippolytus's "Refutation", we may well conclude that his gospel not only was used by them but was also composed in support of their doctrines. ......It is important as a witness to the development of Gnostic Christology, not to the teaching of the historical Jesus.


The Naming of the Naassenes: Hippolytus, Refutatio V. 6-10 as Hieros Logos
Mark J. Edwards, Zeitschrift für Papyrologie und Epigraphik, Bd. 112, (1996) (pp. 74-80)

Quote:
"Were Gnostics in antiquity ever pagan?

It has generally been assumed that they do not belong to the history of Classical religion, but some at least belong to the history of its explanation. I shall argue here that a text, which in its present form can be treated as the earliest extant document of Gnostic Christianity, began as an exposition of the Eleusinian mysteries. I shall not infer that our author was a pagan; since, indeed, the gnosis he taught was not so much a revelation as an instrument for interpreting all previous revelations, I shall not attempt to show that he worshipped any gods at all.


[Concludes ...]

"The gnosis of the earliest Gnostics, therefore, would appear to be: not a mystery, but a studious collocation of the mysteries; a philological discipline which aims to be the master, not the servant, of philosophy; a parliament of symbols which does not proclaim a new code of belief."
If this doesn't make sense ask more questions.

Finally I noticed this above ....

Quote:
Originally Posted by archibald View Post
Incidentally, what do you make of the Nag Hamadi Codices? Gnostic, or not? They had a copy of Plato in there, as I recall.
I have had a very close look at the Coptic version of Plato.

Comparing Plato' Republic in the Nag Hammadi coptic to the Original Greek

Quote:

The editor of the NHC may have lost contact with a living Greek Alexandrian philosophical tradition because it was no longer supported by the Roman Emperors from 324 CE. The editor and his scribes obviously preferred to be hundreds of miles up the Nile River from the city of Alexandria.

It is suggested that what academics perceive as a "mistranslation" is in fact a purposeful rendition of Plato, adapted for the political reality of Greek philosophy during the rules of Constantine and Constantius II, from 324 to 360 CE.

The extract is "ineptly translated", according to Howard M Jackson, and "hopelessly confused", "a distastrous failure", and
"a product of an intellectually unsophisticated person who has lost contact with a living philosophical tradition", according to James Brasher, who notes that "Plato's words have been distorted and misunderstood so badly that they are hardly recognisable.

~ Lion and Human in "Gospel of Thomas" Logion 7
Andrew Crislip, SBL 126/3 (2007)
All of that is very interesting, and I read it all (not the books themselves, since they are not in full at your links, but that's ok, I accept your quotes).

But it doesn't seem to answer my question. Unless I have missed something.

Why would these guys have a text in their library which starts:

'These are the secret sayings that the living Jesus spoke and Didymos Judas Thomas recorded.

1. And he said, "Whoever discovers the interpretation of these sayings will not taste death."

2. Jesus said.......'


And almost everything thereafter appears to relate to earth?

As for Plato, corrupt or faithful to the original does not seem to be the big issue for me. It suggests Platonism, either way, doesn't it?
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Old 09-28-2011, 07:06 AM   #36
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...TedM is correct. It is merely your opinion that there is no evidence. And your opinion is not, in my opinion, a particularly convincing opinion. Paul is littered with HJ references from start to finish. It is bio detail that is (mostly) not there, that's all....
Your claim is ERRONEOUS and KNOWN to be FALLACIOUS. "Paul" is NOT littered with HJ references.


Again, the historical Jesus is a REJECTION of the NT Jesus, the Jesus of Faith.

Why are you NOT complying with the strict meaning of the "historical Jesus" in the HJ/MJ argument?

Do not confuse the issue.

The "historical Jesus" of Nazareth is PRESUMED to be an ORDINARY MAN who had ZERO ability to FORGIVE the Sins of mankind, did NOT resurrect on the Third day, cannot come back a SECOND time to earth and is NOT God Incarnate.

Please, please, please, the ENTIRE Pauline writings are ABOUT the RESURRECTED Jesus of Faith not some unknown man of whom nothing is documented.

You have ALREADY ADMITTED that is virtually IMPOSSIBLE to know anything with certainty about YOUR HJ so please stop your nonsense claiming that "Paul" is LITTERED with references to HJ.

Your assertion is "almost impossible" to be certain or corroborated.

It is CERTAIN that in Galatians 1.1 it is claimed that "Paul" was NOT an apostle of an historical Jesus.

It is CERTAIN that in Galatians1 .11-12 it is claimed that "Paul" did NOT get his gospel from an historical Jesus.

It is CERTAIN that in Romans 1.25 it is implied that the CREATURE should NOT be worshiped ONLY the Creator.

It is CERTAIN the Extant Pauline writings are NOT LITTERED with references to HJ.

It is the COMPLETE OPPOSITE.

The Pauline writings are LITTERED with MYTH JESUS, the resurrected Jesus of FAITH.

Resurrected MYTH Jesus is the FOUNDATION of the Pauline writings.
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Old 09-28-2011, 11:42 AM   #37
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My wager is that Arius was in historical reality a Platonist theologian and not a christian bishop of any variety at all. The victors simly rewrote the history of Arius of Alexandria's role in the reception of the "Christian Canonical Books". Constantine had already pronounced "damnatio memoriae" on the books, the name and the living political memory of that "Porphyrian" Arius.
Hi Pete

I think I've raised this before.

Nobody claims Arius was a Christian bishop. He was a presbyter, a Christian priest.

Andrew Criddle
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Old 09-28-2011, 05:47 PM   #38
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Originally Posted by archibald View Post
Why would these guys have a text in their library which starts:

'These are the secret sayings that the living Jesus spoke and Didymos Judas Thomas recorded.

1. And he said, "Whoever discovers the interpretation of these sayings will not taste death."

2. Jesus said.......'
The text of the gThomas does not actually say "Jesus said this, and Jesus said this, and Jesus said that, etc, etc, etc. The Coptic text uses an abbreviated "nomina sacra". Here is some further info on this:

Fabulating Jesus, the Coptic Nomina Sacra, and intriguing questions

Quote:
Why Gnostic "Codes" Do Not Name the Historical Jesus

"Jesus," considered as the proper name
of an assumed-to-be historical person,
does not appear in the Gnostic Coptic writings.
The same applies for the term "Christ"
understood as the Incarnation or Son of God
celebrated in the theology of Saint Paul and Saint John.

In my book "Not in His Image" I wrote:


In the Coptic Gnostic material
the names Jesus and Christ
are never written in full,
but indicated by code such as
the letters IS with a bar over them.
Scholars routinely fill in the blanks,


JESUS from IS making IS into I(eseo)S,
the Greek form of the Hebrew name Yeshua.

They do so with considerable poetic license,
for there is no textual evidence to support
the assumption that in Gnostic usage
IS indicated a historical person
named Ieseos, Jesus.

IS could as well be translated in another way:
I(asiu)S, giving the name Iasius, “the healer,”
a title rather than a common name.


But translators assume that IS
indicates Jesus of the New Testament.

In short, scholars do not allow us
the chance to consider that IS might indicate
anything else but a literal person
whose identity is predetermined.

FYI my take at the moment on this practice is as follows.

The role of "Pontifex Maximus" had with it a discretion for the Emperor to subscribe to his favorite cult. All emperors before Constantine subscribed to their favorite cults. The nominated deity of the "Pontifex Maximus" was traditionally always provided a great deal of respect. This is to be expected, since the deities were already established in the empire. Jesus was very new in the empire as far as I can see. When the divinity of Jesus was bound inside the greek new testament books, it was purposefully encrypted --- the most ancient evidence discloses the universal use of "nomina sacra".

When the new testament greek became authoritative, the "nomina sacra" used in the NT was re-used by the Gnostics writing in Greek the earliest Greek Gnostic Gospels and Acts. However these Greek texts were searched out and destroyed. The Gnostics therefore translated the Greek to Coptic, and buried the books c.348 CE, because they were too hot. If these books had been found by Athanasius for example while searching the Pachomian monastery at Nag Hammadi, then it would have been death for the entire "monastery" (imo).
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Old 09-28-2011, 05:56 PM   #39
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mountainman View Post

My wager is that Arius was in historical reality a Platonist theologian and not a christian bishop of any variety at all. The victors simly rewrote the history of Arius of Alexandria's role in the reception of the "Christian Canonical Books". Constantine had already pronounced "damnatio memoriae" on the books, the name and the living political memory of that "Porphyrian" Arius.
Hi Pete

I think I've raised this before.

Nobody claims Arius was a Christian bishop. He was a presbyter, a Christian priest.
Hi Andrew,

Thanks again for the clarification. I was responding too quickly. In my recent essay I have consistently used the term presbyter. However the issue that I explore in the essay (after dicussions here and elsewhere) is that everyone is claiming Arius to be a Christian (following Eusebius and the other later heresiolgists).

The idea that I am exploring is that Arius was not any kind of christian, but rather a theological Platonist philosopher, who's spiritual father was Ammonias Saccas the non christian "father" of the revival in Platonism, often termed Neoplatonism.

Pete
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Old 09-29-2011, 12:37 AM   #40
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Originally Posted by mountainman View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by archibald View Post
Why would these guys have a text in their library which starts:

'These are the secret sayings that the living Jesus spoke and Didymos Judas Thomas recorded.

1. And he said, "Whoever discovers the interpretation of these sayings will not taste death."

2. Jesus said.......'
The text of the gThomas does not actually say "Jesus said this, and Jesus said this, and Jesus said that, etc, etc, etc. The Coptic text uses an abbreviated "nomina sacra". Here is some further info on this:

Fabulating Jesus, the Coptic Nomina Sacra, and intriguing questions

Quote:
Why Gnostic "Codes" Do Not Name the Historical Jesus

"Jesus," considered as the proper name
of an assumed-to-be historical person,
does not appear in the Gnostic Coptic writings.
The same applies for the term "Christ"
understood as the Incarnation or Son of God
celebrated in the theology of Saint Paul and Saint John.

In my book "Not in His Image" I wrote:


In the Coptic Gnostic material
the names Jesus and Christ
are never written in full,
but indicated by code such as
the letters IS with a bar over them.
Scholars routinely fill in the blanks,


JESUS from IS making IS into I(eseo)S,
the Greek form of the Hebrew name Yeshua.

They do so with considerable poetic license,
for there is no textual evidence to support
the assumption that in Gnostic usage
IS indicated a historical person
named Ieseos, Jesus.

IS could as well be translated in another way:
I(asiu)S, giving the name Iasius, “the healer,”
a title rather than a common name.


But translators assume that IS
indicates Jesus of the New Testament.

In short, scholars do not allow us
the chance to consider that IS might indicate
anything else but a literal person
whose identity is predetermined.

FYI my take at the moment on this practice is as follows.

The role of "Pontifex Maximus" had with it a discretion for the Emperor to subscribe to his favorite cult. All emperors before Constantine subscribed to their favorite cults. The nominated deity of the "Pontifex Maximus" was traditionally always provided a great deal of respect. This is to be expected, since the deities were already established in the empire. Jesus was very new in the empire as far as I can see. When the divinity of Jesus was bound inside the greek new testament books, it was purposefully encrypted --- the most ancient evidence discloses the universal use of "nomina sacra".

When the new testament greek became authoritative, the "nomina sacra" used in the NT was re-used by the Gnostics writing in Greek the earliest Greek Gnostic Gospels and Acts. However these Greek texts were searched out and destroyed. The Gnostics therefore translated the Greek to Coptic, and buried the books c.348 CE, because they were too hot. If these books had been found by Athanasius for example while searching the Pachomian monastery at Nag Hammadi, then it would have been death for the entire "monastery" (imo).
MM, your posts are interesting, but do not seem to address my question. You may use 'IS' instead of 'Jesus' if that is correct. I am not sure whether you prefer the explanation that the character in this book is another prophet or whether you prefer to think that said prophet is not earthly. Neither appears to be the better explanation.

Here's another couple of lines, from slightly further in:

52 His disciples said to him, "Twenty-four prophets have spoken in Israel, and they all spoke of you."

He said to them, "You have disregarded the living one who is in your presence, and have spoken of the dead."
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