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Old 05-25-2011, 11:06 AM   #31
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I’m wondering why Dog-on insists on external confirmation for anything in the Bible. Is this a rule he applies only to the Bible or is it a general rule about trying to extract history from ancient documents.
One day ApostateAbe will wake up and realize best explanation requires external confirmation. That you are wondering puts you in the same class of historyless enquiry. History works on confirming facts.

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If we were discussing Socrates for example would he discount anything in Plato or Xenophon if it wasn’t corroborated by an outside source. There is excellent reason to doubt Plato and Xenophon with regard to Socrates. Both were followers, perhaps disciples would not be too strong a term. There are inconsistencies between their accounts. Both may have been motivated to place their teacher in the best light possible, yet historians interested in Socrates use both as sources. Should we just reject both sources until corroborated? If so I don’t think we can know anything about Socrates.
This is pretty warped. Plato and Xenophon may have been biased but you know that they existed and both claimed to know Socrates themselves. The gospels are unprovenanced, undated and anonymous. none of which can be said about Plato or Xenophon. The analogy is utterly bogus. And why do you omit the contemporary antagonistic portrayal of Socrates by Aristophanes??
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Old 05-25-2011, 11:14 AM   #32
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Suppose that 2000 years from now the only remaining record of the Civil War is one copy of Gone With The Wind. Would it be unreasonable to conclude, from the existence of the book, that a Civil War had more likely than not taken place at some time in the distant past?

Steve
Great point Steve! Let's say that hypothetically 2000 years in the future a historian uncovers a copy of Gone With the Wind. This historian has access to nearly limitless resources, scholars and methodology to dig back and discover whether or not the impressive war described in the book actually took place.

In the process he and his crack team of researchers are unable to find any independent verification that this war ever occurred. They can't find any medals, tombstones, letters written to or from soldiers, uniforms, currency or military records of the event in question. Even though they rigorously look in exactly the places where one would expect to find evidence of this war they find none.

In that case, absolutely. The rational and reasonable (albeit tentative) conclusion would be one of skepticism. In all likelihood this war did not occur. This conclusion would be imminently reasonable because one would expect a war of that magnitude to leave behind some physical evidence apart from a narrative in a book that could easily have been fiction.

Is that the point you were trying to make?
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Old 05-25-2011, 01:07 PM   #33
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I don't know Gone With the Wind, but if all the remaining records of between the wars Germany was a copy of 'Cabaret' might not the question be whether it was reasonable to suppose that there might well have been a historical person on whom the Sally Bowles of the film was based?

David B
Apparently. Sally Bowles
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It is thought that the character was loosely based on Jean Ross, a cabaret singer and political writer who Isherwood met whilst rooming at Fraulein Thurau’s guesthouse at 17 NollendorfStraße during late 1920’s and early 30’s
But no one disputes that there might have been one or more historical sources for the portrait of Jesus in the gospels.
So what is the fuss about then? All I am saying is that many myths have some historical background, and I see no reason why that should not apply to Jesus.

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The question is whether this person was the inspiration for the Christian religion?[/b]
Depends what you mean by inspiration, I suppose. In a sense, how could he or they not be? In another sense, it is hard to imagine that any historical Jesus would have anticipated or desired Christianity as it has become in its many forms.

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Old 05-25-2011, 01:56 PM   #34
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Suppose that 2000 years from now the only remaining record of the Civil War is one copy of Gone With The Wind. Would it be unreasonable to conclude, from the existence of the book, that a Civil War had more likely than not taken place at some time in the distant past? [Emphasis added.]
No, it would not. The book's mere existence would prove nothing at all.
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Old 05-25-2011, 02:03 PM   #35
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So what is the fuss about then?
The fact that the Sally Bowles character "was loosely based on Jean Ross" does not make Cabaret a story about Jean Ross.
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Old 05-25-2011, 02:04 PM   #36
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So, I think that we really do need to make sense of the early Christian writings with a more probabilistic perspective, which in this case is somewhere in the center of the two extreme opposing perspectives. We need to find best explanations for any given claim, and the best explanations may involve historical elements, even if our only knowledge of such things are contained in the untrustworthy writings of ancient Christians.

What do you think?
I don't think there is any point debating this.

No matter what historical phenomenon we seek to understand, our accepted explanation should always be the best one available. We measure the quality of an explanation based both on its probability and on its explanatory power. Ideally, the explanation that we accept should have the highest available ratings in both categories; this isn't always possible, though, and some good intellectual judgement is required to figure out how much of each we might be able to sacrifice in exchange for more of the other.

For example, there are many ways to explain the appearance of the revolutionary—Christian—understanding of the Jewish Messiah around the first century ᴀ.ᴅ. The hypothesis that 'every single aspect of it was entirely fabricated with no basis in reality' has a high degree of explanatory power (it can, literally, explain every aspect as a human invention), but it is severely lacking when it comes to probability, primarily because people don't change their views overnight with no reason, and the 'it was all invented' hypothesis, therefore, only pushes the questions further to 'why was it invented?'.

Likewise, we can explain this change in thinking as a result of 'the Messiah really came to earth, told everyone what his actual properties were, lived up to them, etc.'. This explanation, while explaining every aspect of the Messianic-mindset revolution by declaring it factual and actual, is as horribly improbable as the explanation that the whole thing was made up.

And so we seek a balance for optimization: maximum explanatory power with maximum probability. Weighting these factors allows us to determine the cost-benefit analysis of trading one for the other, and thus we're able to achieve an optimal explanation given whatever data we have available.

This is the approach that should be applied to every attempt to explain historical phenomena—Biblical or otherwise. Granted, it doesn't guarantee our explanations to be true (no approach has this effect), but it does assure us that our arguments will be as strong as possible with any given data set; and this is how we decide which explanation to accept: based on the strength of its accompanying argument. Thus an explanation with a high probability and impressive explanatory power will succeed in giving us the most convincing premises possible, and as many premises as possible to necessitate the conclusion: it will be the strongest.

And this is where the rational sit. Sit elsewhere and your claims are no longer relevant in the realms of logic, reason, or reality.

Jon
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Old 05-25-2011, 02:06 PM   #37
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But no one disputes that there might have been one or more historical sources for the portrait of Jesus in the gospels.
Toto, I think I'm disagreeing more about semantics than substance, but I for one would most certainly dispute that.
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Old 05-25-2011, 02:08 PM   #38
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I propose a perspective based on probability, not on prejudice.
Fine with me. My perspective is that there was no historical Jesus, and I base that on probability, not on prejudice.

Thank you, Abe, for making it so easy.
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Old 05-25-2011, 02:08 PM   #39
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Originally Posted by Juststeve View Post
Suppose that 2000 years from now the only remaining record of the Civil War is one copy of Gone With The Wind. Would it be unreasonable to conclude, from the existence of the book, that a Civil War had more likely than not taken place at some time in the distant past?

Steve
Great point Steve! Let's say that hypothetically 2000 years in the future a historian uncovers a copy of Gone With the Wind. This historian has access to nearly limitless resources, scholars and methodology to dig back and discover whether or not the impressive war described in the book actually took place.

In the process he and his crack team of researchers are unable to find any independent verification that this war ever occurred. They can't find any medals, tombstones, letters written to or from soldiers, uniforms, currency or military records of the event in question. Even though they rigorously look in exactly the places where one would expect to find evidence of this war they find none.

In that case, absolutely. The rational and reasonable (albeit tentative) conclusion would be one of skepticism. In all likelihood this war did not occur. This conclusion would be imminently reasonable because one would expect a war of that magnitude to leave behind some physical evidence apart from a narrative in a book that could easily have been fiction.

Is that the point you were trying to make?
I agree with you completely. When we find only silence and lack of evidence where we would otherwise very much expect to find something, then I think it would be reasonable to conclude that the American civil war was just a creative invention of the author. Supposing that we had no inquisitive access to the American continent, and it was sunken to the bottom of the sea by outerspace alien technology, and the only thing that survived was a copy of Gone with the Wind, then it really would not be unreasonable to conclude that there was an American civil war, based on the plausibility that an author would not invent such excessive needless and fictionally unexpected (but historically expected) details of the political/social context of the war. In such a case, silence would not be much of an argument, and we can readily point to other historical examples or hypotheticals where silence (or lack of multiple attestation) likewise would not be much of an argument for ahistoricity (i.e. John the Baptist). If silence is your justification for taking Perspective #2, then that's fine--just be sure to make sure it is legit. For a fuller explanation of my theory of arguments from silence, see this thread:

How to judge an argument from silence
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Old 05-25-2011, 02:12 PM   #40
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I propose a perspective based on probability, not on prejudice.
Fine with me. My perspective is that there was no historical Jesus, and I base that on probability, not on prejudice.

Thank you, Abe, for making it so easy.
I am glad to help. A lot of us argue as though relevant evidence simply doesn't exist, one way or the other, and I think your position is superior to that. I would love to know where you have made your arguments (I might have seen them before, but remind me anyway, maybe, thanks).
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