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Old 06-28-2007, 10:19 PM   #81
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Originally Posted by ClassicsFiend View Post
If you type "Against the Galileans" in a google search, those links to tertullian.org -- one of which mentions before you even enter the site that the work is quoted from Cyril -- pop up. It's not that hard. Also, I explained why it was irrelevant -- it's what we have to work with, and "Against the Galileans" is the common term for the document. I believe you prefer to call it "Fabrication of the Galileans," but you refer to it as Julian's words and by that title nonetheless. I just don't see why you felt a need to pick a fight on that issue at all.
I am not picking a fight. I am defending my
right to interpret the words of Julian (via Cyril)
in an explicit historical sense.

I am defending the words of Julian in their
most literal and explicit ancient historical sense,
because he thought it was expedient to inform
the world of his convictions at that time.

When he says that he was convinced that the fabrication
of the Galilaeans was a fiction of men composed by
wickedness (as we learn grudging through Cyril) he
was the first author of antiquity to have any say
whatsoever about the rule and turbulence which
Constantine had started at Nicaea, in 325 CE.

Why would he say such an extraordinary thing
about the new state religion?
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Old 06-28-2007, 10:35 PM   #82
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By all means.

Here we have two hypotheses.

1. Christianity did not exist before Constantine.
2. Christianity did exist before Constantine.

A balanced methodology would gather available data and look at whether, taking all the data together, they fit better with hypothesis 1 or with hypothesis 2.

But you, because of your own bias, adopt a biassed methodology instead.

When the discussion turns to hypothesis 1, you insist that the methodological onus is to produce evidence that falsifies it. All you undertake to do is to show how any bit of evidence might possibly fit with hypothesis 1. You make no attempt to produce any evidence that positively supports hypothesis 1 as against hypothesis 2, by showing not merely that it can possibly fit with hypothesis 1 but also that it fits with hypothesis 1 better than with hypothesis 2.

When the discussion turns to hypothesis 2, however, you apply a biassed double standard and insist that the methodological onus is to produce evidence that positively supports it. All you undertake to do is to show how any bit of evidence that fits with hypothesis 2 might also possibly fit with hypothesis 1.
What you have termed Hypothesis Number One is new
on the scene and has not been academically assessed.
FWIW, I have not read many theses arguing it.

What you have termed Hypothesis 2 is the ruling paradigm
and is essentially unquestioned. Pick up any academic text
in the field of ancient history, and you will find them quoting
Eusebius for the details of things in the prenice epoch.

Moreover, what you call hypothesis one, I have on a number
of occassions during discussions in this forum, perhaps even
my initial posts, and elsewhere, called an implication of
a separately articulated hypothesis.

Let me say this again slowly.

My initial postulate or hypothesis is this:
that Eusebius wrote and tendered fiction.

I have outlined this in my Introductory Sketch.

There are several implications of this postulate with
respect to the consideration of evidence from the
field of ancient history. These implications are:

First Implication of Historical Fiction = Alternative

The first implication of the postulate is that there must exist another theory of history with a far greater integrity for the period, and perhaps quite different than the theory of history presented by Eusebius. For the exercise, this is to be called "reality".

Second Implication of Historical Fiction = Conjoins

The second implication is that there must exist a point in time at which the historical fiction is conjoined with "reality". That is, the fictitious theory of history must have been physically inserted into "reality" at some stage, or point in time.

Third Implication of Historical Fiction = Precedent date

The third implication is that this point in time at which the historical fiction is conjoined with "reality" must necessarily be - at the earliest - either during, or after, the life of the author of the fiction. Eusebius the author completes his work at some time prior to the Council of Nicea, in 325 CE.

Fourth Implication of Historical Fiction = Turbulent controversy

The fourth implication of the postulate is that this point in "reality" at which the fiction was implemented, would necessarily be associated with possibly massive social turbulence. People would be bound to notice the change in their history books, and possibly overnight. The Arian controversy and heresy is here cited and analysed with a new perspective.

Fifth Implication of Historical Fiction = party with power

The fifth implication of the postulate is that because of the possibly massive social turbulence associated with the actual implementation of the fiction, a great degree of power would be needed to be brought to bear, by the party responsible for the implementation of the fiction. The supreme imperial commander of the Roman Empire, Constantine I, is cited and his involvement in the establishment of the Nicean Council, for the express purpose of containing the Arian controversy (heresy) is cited and detailed.


I am defending Hypothesis Number One because noone before
has seen fit to give it a run for its money, and because it seems
to me to represent an interesting research project in the field
of ancient history.

My stance is scientific. The theory can be shown wrong.
But it may also predict that "christian evidence" is demarked
in the archeological record with a very sharp delineated
boundary with respect to chronology, and correspondent
with the rise of Constantine.

The theory may also be able to predict a number of other
issues which before have been problematic and not well
explained until a new perspective has been afforded.

These are:

1) The Arian controversy.
2) The Treatise of Julian "Against the Non Pagans".
3) The censorship of Cyril of Julian's treatise.
4) The role of the neopythagorean lineage of philosophers and
their corresponding religious figures, associated in some way
with the "Pontifex Maximus" role in the Roman empire at that time.
5) The place and the calumny of Apollonius of Tyana, published
author of the first century, sage and historical figure, who was
targetted by Eusebius, via a Hierocles "profile" in the 4th century,
at the sponsorship of Constantine, Hellenic-Hater.
6) The adamant stance of the Jews that they posses no
records of the new ROman god, first bound in completeness,
with his Hebrew and New Contexts contiguous, in the
Constantine Bible 331 CE, the same year Arius, according
to Sir Isaac Newton's research, was poisoned in a bog-house
in Constantinople. Arius --- constantine's sole opponent.
Puppet on a string perhaps?

7) The list is endless, as our common antiquity IMHO
is yet to be perceived in a new light and paradigm.
All this verbiage boils down to the simple fact that you refuse to be methodologically even-handed because doing so won't give you the results you want. You have a predetermined result and then select your line of approach in order to support it. Ergo, you are methodologically bankrupt. I explained in my previous post what a balanced methodology might look like: you have not given any reason for rejecting this approach or for regarding an alternative methodology as superior.

Is there anybody reading this thread who thinks that my remarks on methodology are flawed, or that Pete's position is methodologically superior?
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Old 06-29-2007, 01:32 AM   #83
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All this verbiage boils down to the simple fact that you refuse to be methodologically even-handed because doing so won't give you the results you want. You have a predetermined result and then select your line of approach in order to support it.

I have a predetermined postulate and am entitled to
select a line of approach in order to both test that
hypothesis, and simultaneously construct a theory
of ancient history based upon that one postulate.

The "results" that I deal with are all the citations
available to the field of ancient history, and I am
entitled to view these "results" with the assistance
of a theory of ancient history (itself developed upon
a postulate, as explained).

I fail to see the substance of your objections.
I appreciate the use of FOR and AGAINST columns
of argument and their comparitive and relational
weighing, but in this instance, as I asked, what
use would it serve me?

If you can provide a concrete sample, perhaps
I have misundertood where you are coming from.

Best wishes,


Pete
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Old 06-29-2007, 06:21 AM   #84
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Originally Posted by mountainman
When did the Bible become part of the world?
Yes, a good question for research indeed. The
answer however may turn out to be the 4th century,
and not a decade earlier.
The Bible may not have been part of the world as a single book for a long time, and I'm fine with discussing that. But biblical texts are cited much earlier than the formation of the actual book, and you've shown me absolutely nothing to convince me otherwise. I would basically need you to go through every text (or at least a very significant number), in every different style and language, that deals with Christianity before Constantine, and show me exactly how and why they are "frauds" or "interpolations." Shepherd of Hermas, Letters of Clement, the writings of Clement of Alexandria, Irenaeus of Lyons, Origen, "gnostics" like Valentinus and Marcion, plus each individual NT book. And the list is far, far longer than what I can produce off the top of my head. To show what you want to and essentially rewrite Christian history as it is currently accepted, you have a loooong row to hoe.

Quote:
Why accept christological explanations when simple
and plain political explanations will clearly suffice
for the evidence that is available to us?
If people have certain beliefs and get riled up over them, then that affects the way they behave. When you read the texts, some of which I cited for you above, you can see that these people are having a theological argument, and that they got so excited about it that it caused major disturbances in the church. The Egyptian church eventually split off as a result of a fight over how the human and divine nature of Christ really worked. Your political explantion is not "simple" when you take all of the evidence that people actually cared about christological issues into account -- you just happen to bypass all the evidence and ignore what these people were really trying to discuss. Take that Gregory of Nyssa quote I tossed you above. I'd say it implies that regular joes were fired up over it as well.


Quote:
Originally Posted by mountainman
I am defending the words of Julian in their
most literal and explicit ancient historical sense,
because he thought it was expedient to inform
the world of his convictions at that time.

When he says that he was convinced that the fabrication
of the Galilaeans was a fiction of men composed by
wickedness (as we learn grudging through Cyril) he
was the first author of antiquity to have any say
whatsoever about the rule and turbulence which
Constantine had started at Nicaea, in 325 CE.

Why would he say such an extraordinary thing
about the new state religion?
Again, I think what you see as the most "literal and historical" sense of the words is a very serious misinterpretation. If Julian were trying to express that Christianity was a fabrication in the sense that you want it to be, he wouldn't have focused on Bible contradictions (heavily centered on Hebrew scripture), mentioned Jesus offhand along with other Bible figures without making strong implications that Jesus was more made up than anyone else, or openly admitted that Pagan myths were also invented. I think your favorite quote in context reveals this very clearly. Also, it's not like Christianity had never had critics before, like Celsus and Porphyry. Oh yeah, you'll have to show me how those are false/interpolated also. I want specifics.

Further questions you should be thinking about if you think all of Christianity pre-Constantine was fabricated:

Why does there seem to be such a strong difference between Christian writers from the eastern and western halves of the empire? (Eastern authors seem more philosophically inclined.)

How do you deal with the presence of early Gnostics and heretics who had their own controversial belief systems before Constantine? (And if they weren't before Constantine how do you propose to prove that?)

Why did the Arian controversy start in Egypt among Egyptian clergy? If it didn't, how do you show that, and why would Constantine choose Egypt?

How do you explain the development of early desert monasticism, especially since Anthony the Great was already out in the desert doing his ascetic thing by the time Constantine got going? And if you don't think he was doing that, how do you explain the development of that concept? How/why would Constantine or his cronies come up with that lifestyle for certain people?

Also, if the New Testament were invented, why would Constantine have it focus so much on the particular subjects the NT does focus on? i.e. Jesus' willingness to work on the Sabbath or bend other Old Testament laws -- concepts that are not going to immediately be familiar to non-Jewish Romans? Why would parts of the New Testament seem so focused on leaving the world by rejecting family and seeking to store up treasures in heaven if the document were designed to induce submission to an emperor? I think a lot of the New Testament emphasizes rejection of worldly social order. Not a great idea for a leader looking to control people. (Also this doesn't make sense because Christians were opposed to emperor cult, something Constantine allowed and something that would have been beneficial to him, as the emperor.)

Why did so many bishops at the Council of Nicaea disagree with each other so violently if Christianity were made up right then? And why did future church councils meet on the same christological issue and disagree with Nicaea later? Why did Arians regain power after Nicaea? (THIS is where I think political issues come in -- I suspect Constantine was willing to switch sides based on political expediency. But that is another topic altogether.) How did Constantine's son turn out to be Arian?

If the persecutions of Christians were fake, how did the Meletian heresy arise, and how did the Meletian schism happen?

Basically the questions that arise from your conspiracy theory are huge questions, and you will have to explain a LOT -- probably enough to write multiple books -- on going through the accepted New Testament documents alone. Of course, I seriously doubt you will do the actual work, but that's basically what you'd have to do to rewrite history. You will require a lot more than suspicion and a couple of misinterpreted quotes to knock these issues down. If you don't know Latin and Greek already, I suggest learning them and doing the proper reading so you can show us how all of the texts are fraudulent and written by the same group of people. I would need a TON of strong evidence and textual analysis to show me how all of pre-Nicene Christian writing could have been fabricated.

I think you're way off base and will continue to do so, but good luck anyway. I should be packing right now as I am about to leave the country for a while, so I'll leave you to it.
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Old 06-29-2007, 05:20 PM   #85
J-D
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mountainman View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by J-D View Post
All this verbiage boils down to the simple fact that you refuse to be methodologically even-handed because doing so won't give you the results you want. You have a predetermined result and then select your line of approach in order to support it.

I have a predetermined postulate and am entitled to
select a line of approach in order to both test that
hypothesis, and simultaneously construct a theory
of ancient history based upon that one postulate.
What you are not entitled to do, by any sound methodology, is to reject a line of approach solely because it leads to rejecting your theory. That is not an intellectually valid procedure in history, in science, or anywhere else.
Quote:
Originally Posted by mountainman View Post
The "results" that I deal with are all the citations
available to the field of ancient history, and I am
entitled to view these "results" with the assistance
of a theory of ancient history (itself developed upon
a postulate, as explained).

I fail to see the substance of your objections.
I appreciate the use of FOR and AGAINST columns
of argument and their comparitive and relational
weighing, but in this instance, as I asked, what
use would it serve me?
It would serve to liberate you from your intellectual error.
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