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02-10-2012, 01:09 AM | #21 | |
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A pertinent point from the interview on Debunking Christianity:
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02-10-2012, 09:06 AM | #22 | ||
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This writer is EXPOSING a little "dirty secret". There is a consensus WITHIN Scholarship that their methodology is worthless. The continued quest for the historical Jesus is IRRATIONAL. |
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02-10-2012, 09:41 AM | #23 | |||
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Historical Jesus: What Can We Know and How Can We Know It? Anthony Le Donne (or via: amazon.co.uk) Quote:
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02-10-2012, 06:16 PM | #24 | |||
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Care to expand this a little? |
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02-10-2012, 10:24 PM | #25 | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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For additional thoughts on Philip the Tetrarch - an old thread: http://www.freeratio.org/showthread.php?t=289319 Is Agrippa II the son of Philip the Tetrarch ? footnote: Antiquities, published around 95 c.e. has Philip the Tetrarch married to Salome, the daughter of Herodias. This indicates that gMark and gMatthew were written prior to Antiquities. Josephus, for whatever agenda, has his own version of Herodian history here. A version that has been questioned by Nikos Kokkinos. Mentioned in an article by Ross S Kraemer: "Implicating Herodias and Her Daughter in the Death of John the Baptizer: A (Christian) Theological Strategy? JBL Summer 2006". |
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02-11-2012, 02:43 AM | #26 | ||
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Coins: YES, for they are not likely to change over time. However, documents are another matter. I will only believe that document xyz, ostensibly written by Josephus, is valid and legitimate, if it is excavated after a 1900 year rest in a tomb, somewhere. There are too many documented instances of overt forgery, concerning text attributed to Josephus, to regard same as reliable. "Slavonic" Josephus is even more unreliable as manuscript evidence.... Quote:
Who copied "Antiquities"? What was his/her agenda? Why couldn't Mark have copied "Antiquities", rather than Josephus copying Mark? How do we distinguish these two possibilities? Based on the manuscript evidence, alone, why couldn't some third party have created both of them? |
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02-11-2012, 03:00 AM | #27 | ||||
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One reason for neglect is the apparent belief of most practicising historians that the theorem doesn't in real life cases genuinely help to resolve controversies and clarify issues. A main area where Bayes theorem can be helpful in correcting human intuitive tendency to misunderstand the real probabilities is where the positive evidence supports an intrinsically improbable conclusion. E.G. There is a DNA match between blood found at the scene of a crime and a known individual. The probability that a random individual would match as well is one hundred thousand to one. However without the DNA evidence there would be no case whatever against the individual. Most people would feel that the DNA evidence firmly establishes the guilt of the individual, (or at least presence on the scene), but a Bayesian analysis would make one very cautious. However for this to be particularly relevant to Richard Carrier's question Quote:
IF Carrier is going to emphasize a personal belief in the intrinsic implausibility of the historicist position then I doubt if his work will cause many people to change their minds. Hence I have doubts whether Richard Carrier's work will contain arguments against the historicist position which are both a/ best explained using Bayes theorem and b/ found widely convincing. Andrew Criddle |
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02-11-2012, 03:16 AM | #28 | |||||
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02-11-2012, 06:32 AM | #29 | |
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02-11-2012, 07:53 AM | #30 | ||
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Could you please explain in more detail what you think is wrong with my post ? Andrew Criddle |
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