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Old 03-10-2005, 02:52 PM   #21
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Mordy: feel free to start a thread in PD or MFP or GRD on that topic if you need to discuss it. The last few posts have drifted from the topic of Biblical criticsm, but your long post was definitely off topic here.
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Old 03-10-2005, 02:54 PM   #22
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Originally Posted by Mordy
Referring to the illegal war in Iraq which violated international law (and moderator please dont DELETE my post since I was showing him WHY my point was valid).
The point itself was off topic and somewhat imflammatory. It's mostly a matter of just being the wrong forum. I don't necessarily even disagree with you about about the war but this is the Bible crit forum. You can rip the war all you want in PD and I'll probably agree completely.

We generally try to keep the political stuff out of this one, though. It's distracting and leads to trainwrecks.
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Old 03-15-2005, 03:02 PM   #23
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Originally Posted by Amaleq13
As you seem to implicitly agree by suggesting a non-literal interpretation, "skeptics" are observing that the most apparent meaning of the prophecy has not been fulfilled.
what i disagree with is that skeptics hold the monopoly on being able to determine the "most apparent" meaning.

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Originally Posted by Amaleq13
Where do you believe the author suggests that his words should be interpreted other than in a literal sense?
prophecies are most often figurative. revelation is a good example.

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Originally Posted by Amaleq13
As far as I can see, there is no indication in the text to suggest that the author intended his words to be creatively interpreted so that they might appear to be a fulfilled prophecy. To all appearances, the author was predicting exactly what he believed would happen and intended it to be interpreted literally.
i guess we disagree.
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Old 03-15-2005, 03:25 PM   #24
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Originally Posted by bfniii
what i disagree with is that skeptics hold the monopoly on being able to determine the "most apparent" meaning.
That isn't a claim being made here as far as I can tell. In fact, there does not appear to be any argument about what the "most apparent" meaning of the prophecy is. You certainly haven't offered one. Instead, you have claimed that it should be interpreted in a different way than the most apparent meaning.

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prophecies are most often figurative. revelation is a good example.
I agree that Revelation is an excellent example of a symbolic prophecy. Daniel is another. The one we are currently discussing, however, does not appear to share any of the same characteristics. Even if we accept "most often" as a true statement, that clearly doesn't mean "always". What criteria do you apply to differentiate?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Amaleq13
As far as I can see, there is no indication in the text to suggest that the author intended his words to be creatively interpreted so that they might appear to be a fulfilled prophecy. To all appearances, the author was predicting exactly what he believed would happen and intended it to be interpreted literally.
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i guess we disagree.
Unless you can offer specific evidence to the contrary (ie an indication the author intended his words to be interpreted figuratively rather than literally), you really aren't disagreeing so much as you are simply choosing to ignore the evidence.
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Old 04-11-2005, 08:35 AM   #25
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I have split off the Tyre discussion and merged it into the new Tyre thread
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Old 04-13-2005, 11:10 AM   #26
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Originally Posted by Amaleq13
Unless you can offer specific evidence to the contrary (ie an indication the author intended his words to be interpreted figuratively rather than literally), you really aren't disagreeing so much as you are simply choosing to ignore the evidence.
This is a problem I frequently encounter in dealing with someone who claims biblical inerrancy. Is there any rule of thumb whereby a reader of the bible can determine whether or not a passage should be interpreted figuratively rather than literally?

It would sure help to have this rule handy when discussing such matters.
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Old 04-16-2005, 10:24 AM   #27
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Originally Posted by John A. Broussard
This is a problem I frequently encounter in dealing with someone who claims biblical inerrancy. Is there any rule of thumb whereby a reader of the bible can determine whether or not a passage should be interpreted figuratively rather than literally?

It would sure help to have this rule handy when discussing such matters.
It's not outlined in blue, that's for sure! How could we make a rule that would describe when Larry King is being literal of figurative, though?

It is a judgment call, certainly not easily described as a set of rules, but still, we do make these decisions, and expect to be able to make them.

As far as the Bible is concerned though, one verse in isolation will sometimes not tell us which is meant, when we read "The arm of the Lord" in one passage, we have to remember "Do I not fill heaven and earth?" as well, to know that "The arm of the Lord" is not a literal arm...

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Old 04-16-2005, 11:07 PM   #28
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
prophecies are most often figurative.
Could you tell me how one can know when a prophecy is figurative. Does that come only after a prophecy fails, or is there some way of telling beforehand?
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Old 08-02-2005, 07:45 PM   #29
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Originally Posted by RGD
This position renders the actual use and identification of any prophecy useless for the purposes of demonstrating whether it or the Bible is true - since you can simply find a figurative interpretation of any possible outcome.
wouldn't that make it true? if a prophecy is true in any sense, why is it not true? just because you don't like how it got interpreted? what if someone else does like the interpretation? a non-christian claiming to not like a particular interpretation or realization does not make the prophecy untrue. it just means that person doesn't want the prophecy to be fulfilled.

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Nothing in the text or any exegesis that I have ever read supports your interpretation.
does that make my perspective untrue?

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Originally Posted by RGD
You are asking us to allow you to read anything you like into the text to salvage your need for complete reliability.
you are asking christians to only accept your interpretation of the passage which you have made, conveniently, after the fact.

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Originally Posted by RGD
Tyre never did 'fall for good'. It's still around. The Biblical prophecy is false, plain and simple - no matter how much you try to spin it.
most references to tyre are in the PAST tense. i'm having a difficult time finding it on a modern map. the last king of tyre is listed as 532BC. in what sense is tyre "still around"? are the 3k or so inhabitants in any way direct descendants of original tyre residents? it seems that tyre was pretty much not tyre when alexander came to town.
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Old 08-02-2005, 07:56 PM   #30
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Amaleq13
As you seem to implicitly agree by suggesting a non-literal interpretation, "skeptics" are observing that the most apparent meaning of the prophecy has not been fulfilled.
apparent to whom? that seems to be a matter of perspective.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Amaleq13
Where do you believe the author suggests that his words should be interpreted other than in a literal sense?
why should a predetermination be made as to what the author intended? did it come true or not?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Amaleq13
As far as I can see, there is no indication in the text to suggest that the author intended his words to be creatively interpreted so that they might appear to be a fulfilled prophecy.
and you feel the text is sufficient to make such a judgment? i would imagine the prophet, being a servant of God, would know that God isn't limited in His responses to a prophecy. we know what was written and we know that there is a certain interpretation which renders the text fulfilled. what else is there to know?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Amaleq13
To all appearances, the author was predicting exactly what he believed would happen and intended it to be interpreted literally.
well, that's certainly a colorful conclusion.
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