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Old 04-27-2004, 02:54 AM   #61
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Originally Posted by Jacob Aliet
You "think"? is that an argument? We don't care about what you think! What we want is what you can argue.
My evidence is there. Argue away.

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Now, simply list the authors, their works and dating and show how they contradict what Doherty argues. Pure and simple.

The criteria they must fall under in order to qualify as a challenge to Doherty's argument :

a) They must be considered to be a "major apologist" (I dont care what this means - ask Doherty - but he says they are not more than six.)
He says "5 or 6", so perhaps he isn't clear on the criteria either. But you are right - Doherty doesn't state who the major apologists are. Does he mean writers whose writings are extant, or who was known to have been a major apologist of the period? It's hard to argue when he isn't clear, as you point out.

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b) They must be mentioning a HJ in an defense of Xstianity against the Pagans
c) They must not have lived beyond c. 180.
I argue that apologists to the pagans deliberately didn't use the historical Jesus in their apologies. They nearly all wrote in the same period (late 2nd C) and all said much the same things, and many of those things appear in the HJ apologists as well. I have examples from Tertullian, Ignatius and (arguably) Tatian who were believers in a HJ and ALSO wrote apologies that didn't include details of a HJ. How does that fit into Doherty's theories? How CAN that fit into Doherty's theories?

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The rest are just red herrings from you. Can't you read an argument and understand it without constructing a strawman!!!
What are the red herrings? You'll note that the only thing I claim is that the silence isn't as great as Doherty suggests.

So, what are the red herrings?
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Old 04-27-2004, 07:10 AM   #62
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I argue that apologists to the pagans deliberately didn't use the historical Jesus in their apologies.
Why would they deliberately avoid mentioning what is arguably the most significant difference between Christianity and the pagan Mysteries?
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Old 04-27-2004, 07:15 AM   #63
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Originally Posted by spin
An example I gave a while back, say I'd made you a sandwich, but dropped it on the dirty floor and I then picked it up and picked out all the dirty that could be seen, giving it to you. Would you eat the sandwich? I don't think you would, because you would still have the doubt. It is functionally arbitrary.
Well, but the interesting thing is, most of the sandwich is not in fact dirty. Also I can estimate that, for example, the surface millimeter of the bread may have dirt on it, but the interior will not. And so on. Dropping it on the floor makes it difficult to know with certainty that we can clean it, but it doesn't mean we don't have any idea how clean it is.

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I don't accept the notion of a historical Jesus based on the evidence we have and I find nothing about the position historical.
Ok--but does that mean you do accept a literary position?

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I can separate observable bad from the text. That doesn't say much about what is left.
Presumably it would mean that what is left is good...

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This is as far back as we can go regarding the production of gospels.
Literary gospels, perhaps, but what about oral gospels?

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Could be. Personally, I'm not too bothered about what people believed so much as what we can demonstrate about the past. People believed that the world had corners and was flat, but that doesn't mean that the world was that way back then.
I admit many people might not be able to get past "could be". Though speaking for myself, I am very interested in what people believed.
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Old 04-27-2004, 08:18 AM   #64
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Wink Eating the sandwich

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Originally Posted by the_cave
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Originally Posted by spin
An example I gave a while back, say I'd made you a sandwich, but dropped it on the dirty floor and I then picked it up and picked out all the dirty that could be seen, giving it to you. Would you eat the sandwich? I don't think you would, because you would still have the doubt. It is functionally arbitrary.
Well, but the interesting thing is, most of the sandwich is not in fact dirty. Also I can estimate that, for example, the surface millimeter of the bread may have dirt on it, but the interior will not. And so on. Dropping it on the floor makes it difficult to know with certainty that we can clean it, but it doesn't mean we don't have any idea how clean it is.
You didn't answer my question. If it were a peanut butter sandwich and there were sh*t on the floor when I dropped it, but I cleaned it off so you could see nothing, would you or would you not eat it if I offered it to you?

The problem we face is not knowing if, and what, there is that is historically usable.

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Originally Posted by the_cave
Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
I don't accept the notion of a historical Jesus based on the evidence we have and I find nothing about the position historical.
Ok--but does that mean you do accept a literary position?
We are really only dealing with text, as there is almost no historical data to throw into the stew.

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Originally Posted by the_cave
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Originally Posted by spin
I can separate observable bad from the text. That doesn't say much about what is left.
Presumably it would mean that what is left is good...
That's one of the problems we face: we don't know. Maybe, yes, maybe, no, maybe, some, maybe all. We have only eliminated that which we can identify.

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Originally Posted by the_cave
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Originally Posted by spin
This is as far back as we can go regarding the production of gospels.
Literary gospels, perhaps, but what about oral gospels?
Mostly, oral gospel is irrecoverable. We, might be able to identify that there was oral gospel, because of hints such as those found in the Didache of itinerant preachers, and we might be able to identify some liturgical material again found in the Didache and also in the gospels, but beyond those oral gospel remains only oral, ie lost.

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Originally Posted by the_cave
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Originally Posted by spin
Could be. Personally, I'm not too bothered about what people believed so much as what we can demonstrate about the past. People believed that the world had corners and was flat, but that doesn't mean that the world was that way back then.
I admit many people might not be able to get past "could be". Though speaking for myself, I am very interested in what people believed.
There's lots about what people believed strewn through the cadres of church fathers. It's rather difficult though to get at the sources of what they believed. You just get what they believed. Trying to do history is about reconstructing the past. The history we are doing is reconstructing the development of xianity.


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Old 04-27-2004, 08:44 AM   #65
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You didn't answer my question.
Well, first of all, before it was just dirt we were talking about...But I again reply I might just get rid of the bread, if I were really hungry.

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The problem we face is not knowing if, and what, there is that is historically usable.
Not knowing, no, you're right, we can't know. But we can make better guesses than others.

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We are really only dealing with text, as there is almost no historical data to throw into the stew.
But are you saying the text is necessarily fictional? I guess you would say that the most we can say about it is, we don't know what it is.

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There's lots about what people believed strewn through the cadres of church fathers. It's rather difficult though to get at the sources of what they believed. You just get what they believed. Trying to do history is about reconstructing the past. The history we are doing is reconstructing the development of xianity.
Sure--but of course beliefs also have histories.
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Old 04-27-2004, 10:56 AM   #66
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Originally Posted by the_cave
Well, first of all, before it was just dirt we were talking about...But I again reply I might just get rid of the bread, if I were really hungry.
The point is: you wouldn't eat the sandwich, because you couldn't be sure.

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Originally Posted by the_cave
Not knowing, no, you're right, we can't know. But we can make better guesses than others.
No, you cannot. Until you have better information, any guess is worthless.

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Originally Posted by the_cave
But are you saying the text is necessarily fictional?
Definitely not.

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Originally Posted by the_cave
I guess you would say that the most we can say about it is, we don't know what it is.
Right. Until we have historical and/or other pointers to help elucidate.

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Originally Posted by the_cave
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Originally Posted by spin
There's lots about what people believed strewn through the cadres of church fathers. It's rather difficult though to get at the sources of what they believed. You just get what they believed. Trying to do history is about reconstructing the past. The history we are doing is reconstructing the development of xianity.
Sure--but of course beliefs also have histories.
Obviously, and their history follows the same rules as any other historical pursuit.

What is important to me is that although xianity has held sway for 1670 odd years, it still hasn't consolidated its history. There have been more [pious forgeries than we need care count, inventing gospels, histories, royal letters, perverting other texts. We are really dealing with a field we could call the archaeology of the religious obfuscation. Like an archaeological site, religious cultural artefacts have layers. The difference here is that with archaeology you eventually know when you've hit bedrock. How do we know when we get to what Paul actually wrote? I just read a reconstruction of Galatians based on what has been preserved in the church fathers of Marcion's copy of Galatians. We've already removed the Pastorals, Ephesians and Colossians from his corpus. There are doubts about parts of Philippians and questions about Philemon, but getting beyond doubts and questions to resolve matters one way or another is certainly not easy. We have to accept that corruption of the texts is the norm and not the exception. It all makes for extremely difficult material on which to make historical analyses.

The approach of denigrating attempts at analyses regarding a mythological Jesus is understandable on the xian's part through a certain fear -- after all the implications are profound for the religion -- covered with contempt, but this is a relatively new field of study, functionally in existence for less than two hundred years, though always on the fringe and treated as tomfoolery. It might not be correct, but I'd like to see where it can lead, as I think any thinking person should. It is through exploring corridors that are not often taken that surprising things are often found.

Having a good grasp of the available history, I know that there is no historical evidence for the existence of Jesus, though he may, or may not, have existed. Any endeavour based on sound methodology to show one way or another is positive.

Science works on the fact that, although it may get a lot of things wrong, next time it will get fewer of those things wrong. It has a few corollaries: 1) that nothing is beyond question and 2) that some things may not be able to be explained -- but one will never know until one tries many times and maybe then never know.


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Old 04-27-2004, 11:11 AM   #67
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Have you got any references in the early church fathers for this early dating for the written gospels?
References come late, and not trustworthy. But "Luke" pretended to be a contemporary of the first apostles. Thereafter we have to look for Irenaeus and Clement of Alexandria. The later says Mark composed the gospel when Peter was still alive in Rome (and approved of it!). By the way, Papias did not say when that was written, relative to Peter's lifespan.

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Originally Posted by Bernard Muller
I am just amazed on how many items, some otherwise trivial, you have to fight against to keep your ideas afloat.

Your hanging on to this triviality is more a reflection of your defensiveness.
What does that mean? I notice you have a few demons to fight in order to stick on your theories.

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Originally Posted by Bernard Muller
Temple, whole city, that's not the point. You missed the second coming to come soon after. And then, the Jewish religion was not overthrown among the whole of Palestine and among Diaspora Jews.

For you it's not the point. You have decided a priori what the point is. I didn't miss the second coming soon afterwards. The significance of what is being talked about is not the straightforward destruction of Jerusalem at all. What did the writer mean by the destruction of the temple? The destruction of the temple was at the time of the writing a literary trope, given the various destructions.
You are very evasive. If I would be an apocalyptic sectarian leader, and composed a writing in secret, would I say the end will come soon after the destruction of Ypres (which happened in WW1)?
A literary trope? Maybe you should read again the passage in question.

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First, there are other items in GMark which relates to the massacres (such as the parable of the tenants, and the call for those in Judea to flee in the mountains). Then, from where do you interpret "about the experiences believers are having and that they just need to hold on". Are not the destructions of 70 also mentioned as a catastrophic event, immediately beginning the great days of distress, which allegedly would be shortened for the elects?

Umm, wasn't Jerusalem in the mountains? Wasn't Mark written outside Palestine and didn't know Palestinian geography? Looking back on what happened to the Jews can be done at any stage, so the usurpation of the Jewish god by gentiles could have been written at any stage. You are not doing history.
Jerusalem in the mountains? Not really, as I observed in person. Fleeing in the hills/mountains is not to be trapped in Jerusalem, but going in places where you can hide and not be killed, as most of the ones who took refuge in Jerusalem. And you agree "Mark" knew about the events of 70.

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Originally Posted by Bernard Muller
Let me guess what you mean. "Mark" mentioned the destruction of the temple but not of Jerusalem. But both happened at the same time, according to Josephus. So either "Mark" was writing before 70CE, and "Mark" guessed right about the temple (but was clueless about Jerusalem) (or did Jesus himself prophecy?)
OR
written later, why would "Mark" still insist the second coming will happen very soon after the temple destruction (and did not know about the massacres and other destructions).

Please clarify you position.
Your dilemma is based on erroneous assumptions.

What is the significance of the destruction of the temple? Are we dealing strictly with a literal destruction of that building? Would the xian writer of a gospel be too interested in the physical destruction of that temple especially writing his gospel somewhere else (probably in Rome, but certainly in a Roman culture) to a non-Jewish audience?

The gospel may easily have been written long after the destruction of Jerusalem and not interested in the destruction at all, but in the struggle of the xian community to survive, while vying with Jews for maintenance of identity as worshippers of the same god, which the xians had appropriated from the Jews. It is only with the ideological victory over the Jews, perhaps our destruction of the temple, that the community could stop feeling 2nd class to the original owners of the religion.
This is not what I read in the mini apocalypse. But later apologists commented like that, such as Tertullian, which makes sense, relative on when they were writing. I already wrote, for "Mark", what's important was to keep his flock under him, and not have them go to false christs and prophets, which in these times of upheaveal (the great distress), appeared. What you wrote is just assumptions, not evidenced, and certainly not history.

Best regards, Bernard
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Old 04-27-2004, 12:15 PM   #68
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Originally Posted by Bernard Muller
You are very evasive. If I would be an apocalyptic sectarian leader, and composed a writing in secret, would I say the end will come soon after the destruction of Ypres (which happened in WW1)?
A literary trope? Maybe you should read again the passage in question.
Remember the temple destruction of Nebuchadnezzar, Antiochus Epiphanes was attributed one, Pompey violated the temple after a siege which broke through into it, and then you've got Titus


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Originally Posted by Bernard Muller
Jerusalem in the mountains? Not really, as I observed in person.
It's not your perspective which is important: think of Mount Moria, Mount of Olives, Mount Zion and Mount Scopus, all in or near Jerusalem.

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Originally Posted by Bernard Muller
Fleeing in the hills/mountains is not to be trapped in Jerusalem, . . .
And I didn't even imply it. I was commenting on how it reflected on the Marcan writer's lack of local knowledge.

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Originally Posted by Bernard Muller
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Originally Posted by spin
The gospel may easily have been written long after the destruction of Jerusalem and not interested in the destruction at all, but in the struggle of the xian community to survive, while vying with Jews for maintenance of identity as worshippers of the same god, which the xians had appropriated from the Jews. It is only with the ideological victory over the Jews, perhaps our destruction of the temple, that the community could stop feeling 2nd class to the original owners of the religion.
This is not what I read in the mini apocalypse. But later apologists commented like that, such as Tertullian, which makes sense, relative on when they were writing. I already wrote, for "Mark", what's important was to keep his flock under him, and not have them go to false christs and prophets, which in these times of upheaveal (the great distress), appeared. What you wrote is just assumptions, not evidenced, and certainly not history.
It certainly wasn't meant to be history either: the paragraph starts "The gospel may easily have been written long after . . ." It is counter-conjection to yours.


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Old 04-27-2004, 02:45 PM   #69
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Jacob Aliet:
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You are interpreting the so-called silence as a proof no-one knew the facts. I know the facts about my late father: did I write his biography? No, because it would be of little interest. So was HJ.

False analogy. Your father is a historical person. And if you are assuming Jesus was a simple peasant Jew, you are also smuggling in historical assumptions into your argument to explain away the lack of mention of historical details concerning him.
"Your father is a historical person". Why not HJ? After all he is described in Paul's epitles to have a human father and come from a woman, in sinful flesh, just as I am. One difference: Paul said he was "under the law", I am not a Jew.

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They werent just quiet about historical details of Jesus' life: if we take Hebrews and Paul's letters, we cannot construct a historical Jesus.
Who said that 'Hebrews' and Paul's letters should provide enough to reconstruct the (true) historical Jesus, with all kind of details? These authors were building up a theology towards the heavenly/mythical Jesus/Word/Son of God. Providing infos about a humble mortal Jew was not of interest and quite a digression. And then, how do you know the Christians did not get the basics about HJ? 'Hebrews' and Paul's epistles said those have been visited before by the authors, and also others. 'Hebrews' strongly alludes about one thing heard from Jesus by eyewitness(es) and indicates his flesh & blood condition.

Here is what transpires about (incarnated) HJ through only Paul's letters (not including 'Hebrews'):
from "Israelites, ... whose [are] the fathers, and of whom [is] the Christ, according to the flesh ..." (Ro9:4-5 YLT) and "the seed of [allegedly] David, according to the flesh" (Ro1:3), "come of a woman, come under law" (Gal4:4 YLT), "found in appearance as a man" (Php2:8) "in the likeness of sinful flesh" (Ro8:3) who "humbled himself" (Php2:8) in "poverty" (2Co8:9) as "servant of the Jews" (Ro15:8) and "was crucified in weakness" (2Co13:4) in "Zion" (Ro9:31-33 & Ro15:26-27).

Best regards, Bernard
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Old 04-28-2004, 02:51 AM   #70
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Originally Posted by Amaleq13
GDon >>>I argue that apologists to the pagans deliberately didn't use the historical Jesus in their apologies.

Why would they deliberately avoid mentioning what is arguably the most significant difference between Christianity and the pagan Mysteries?
Any explanation needs to include the writings of Tertullian and Ignatius and (arguably) Tatian, HJers who also wrote apologies that didn't include references to the historical Jesus.

Nowhere in Doherty's writings does he mention this. Is it important, do you think? How would you explain it?
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