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Old 07-15-2008, 09:20 PM   #141
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Was John the Baptist arrested before Jesus began his ministry (Mk 1:14) or after (Jn 3:24)?
I don't really understand why you would say that one says before and the other after. Could you explain, please?
 
Old 07-15-2008, 09:36 PM   #142
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I really like your account here, truly I do! It is both graphic and entertaining! Much, much better than Matthew's and Luke's account!

Isn't it sad how none of them saw fit to relate how it really happened, though? Oh, well...
You know ...

Often I hear the outspoken skeptic cry if it is inspired by God why couldn't he get it right. That is kind of, well, short sighted.

The Bible was dictated by God only in a sense, because much of it is people telling what happened as God oversees their writing. He allows people to give their own account of events they witnessed. The Gospels of Matthew, Luke, John and Mark are not the Gospel of God. This allows us to see their perspective, because no one sees everything the same. That isn't to say that they were not under inspiration when it was being written but to say they were allowed to give their personal witness. It is actually a good thing.

Most of the so called contradictions can be dispelled even to the satisfaction of most skeptics. Through careful consideration. Most of the actual inconsistancies and contradictions that are there have to do with numbers from the copying errors that can be discovered through ancient manuscripts. Through comparison if at the least, to acknowledge them.
I can´t speak for others, but for my own part I´ll say that I seldom find these dispellings satisfactory. At most I´ll agree that; "Okay, it is not impossible that it happened that way, or yes, that is what the writer could have meant." For example; the way you resolve Judas´ death is both contrived and implausible, in my opinion. I think the much more plausible explanation is that the stories are different because they were written by two different persons who had heard different oral versions of it. No godly supervision involved.

Furthermore, I think the differences between the gospels are exactly what one could expect from four different persons writing at different times and places what they mostly knew from oral sources. (Matthew and Luke probably having access to parts of Mark.) I also think think these persons did their best to relate the events as accurately as they could.

I´m not sure what you mean when you say the writers were "divinely inspired", but I notice that people who claim the bible to be the inerrant, divinely inspired Word of God often end up portraying the evangelists as sloppy writers in the beginning of senility. Would Matthew (or Luke) really leave out details like those you claim happened with Judas´death if he knew about them? Or the story of Peter´s excursion to Gethsemane (another discussion) if he knew about that? The list goes on and on. I almost feel offended on his behalf when people make such claims.
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Old 07-15-2008, 09:44 PM   #143
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Oh, sorry!

No, no, of course not! First of all, "the victim" could easily be two different victims, and secondly; there could have been two killers, one with a gun and the other with a knife. Pfft! That one was easy!

-

Except, maybe if you make some assumptions...

1) "The victim" refers to the same person in both cases
2) There can only be one "killing blow" so that even if there were two deadly attacks, only the one that hit him first killed him from a legal point of view.
3) It is impossible to shoot and stab a person at exactly the same millionth of a second.

What do you think? More assumptions needed?

Cheers!
as it is presented to you thenetian, is it a contradiction yes or no.

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The victem was killed with a knife
The victem was killed with a gun
this is all there is, this is all the evidnece that you have. Is it a contradiction?
Sorry, what I wrote above is all the answer you´re going to get. You always know what the bible really means, so you should have no problem figuring out what my real answer is from the above.
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Old 07-15-2008, 09:46 PM   #144
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Was John the Baptist arrested before Jesus began his ministry (Mk 1:14) or after (Jn 3:24)?
I don't really understand why you would say that one says before and the other after. Could you explain, please?
In Mark, Jesus returns from his temptation in the wilderness to gather his disciples and start his ministry. It says in Mark 1:14 that Jesus begins his ministry AFTER John the Baptist has been put in prison.

However, John 3:24 says specifically that John has not yet been arrested long after Jesus and his disciples have been parading around the countryside performing miraculous deeds.
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Old 07-15-2008, 09:51 PM   #145
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Matthew 27:5 So Judas threw the money into the temple and left. Then he went away and hanged himself.

6 The chief priests picked up the coins and said, "It is against the law to put this into the treasury, since it is blood money." 7 So they decided to use the money to buy the potter's field as a burial place for foreigners. 8 That is why it has been called the Field of Blood to this day. (NIV)

The potter's field was called Field of Blood because it was purchased with blood money by the priests.

Acts 1:18 (With the reward he got for his wickedness, Judas bought a field; there he fell headlong, his body burst open and all his intestines spilled out. 19 Everyone in Jerusalem heard about this, so they called that field in their language Akeldama, that is, Field of Blood.)

The field was called Field of Blood because Judas bought the field and there his bloody intestines spilled out.

The stories differ on how Judas died, on who bought the field, and why it came to be called Field of Blood.
With some so-called contradictions I can see a reason for the confusion. With this one I don't actually see it. Judas threw the money in the temple and then attempted to hang himself, the limb broke and he was disemboweled in the fall. The priests couldn't have the money in the temple so they used it to buy the field. It was still Judas money because the priests rejected it.

You have really answered your own questions. If a man named Stanley paints a house through a contractor that he works with he can say he painted the house and it can also be said that the contractor did. They are both true.

If a man hangs himself and is decapitated it could be said that he died from hanging or decapitation.

It really isn't that difficult.

The verse doesn't say that Judas attempted to hang himself, it says he hanged himself. The verse doesn't say there was a limb or that the unmentioned limb broke. The verses don't say that Judas was disemboweled as a result from a fall by hanging from a limb that broke. You have added what you wish the verses say but don't say.

If a man hangs himself and dies, and later his decomposed body decapitates because of decomposition and gravity, the man still died by hanging.

If a man hangs himself but in the process decapitates himself, he may have died by decapitation but not by hanging.

It's not difficult unless you try and add what isn't there.

The priests couldn't reject the money and also use it to buy a field. They accepted the money back but didn't return it to their treasury because it was blood money; instead they purchased a field for potters burial, and called it Field of Blood because it was purchased with "blood money". At least, according to gMatthew but not according to Acts.
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Old 07-15-2008, 10:04 PM   #146
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Excellent post! Cudos!
This is, to me, an apparently sincere remark coming from someone who is in a position that generally disagrees with my own. That intrigues me. It is a most welcome and refreshing surprise. But tell me, why do you think it was an excellent post? I would like to know.
 
Old 07-15-2008, 10:35 PM   #147
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Excellent post! Cudos!
This is, to me, an apparently sincere remark coming from someone who is in a position that generally disagrees with my own. That intrigues me. It is a most welcome and refreshing surprise. But tell me, why do you think it was an excellent post? I would like to know.
I meant that sincerely, yes.

You made your argument clearly and succinctly, explaining the greek and showing examples of how it was used elsewhere, as well as showing that many translators agree with your position. It is hardly possible to do a better job unless one makes a whole dissertation out of it, IMO.

Did Jesus ever claim to be divine in your opinion?
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Old 07-15-2008, 10:55 PM   #148
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Did Jesus ever claim to be divine in your opinion?
First of all, I really do appreciate your uh ... appreciation of my post. I will often express an appreciation of a skeptic's perspective if it is done well, though I disagree with it.

To answer your question, yes. Jesus most certainly did claim to be divine. Which means almost nothing. The judges were dieties, Moses was appointed to be a god by Jehovah God to Pharaoh and Aaron. I think that the skeptic is just a little bit more informed than the Xian. They (skeptics) have the upper hand because they don't believe in the religion of it all but on the other hand the skeptic is subject in some way to the lack of education of the believer.

So the skeptic has the unfortunate position of having to go by what the uninformed Xian (I loath them as, or more than do you) does. It is really sad. I would love to see the skeptics rise above the misinformation of the Xian. That would produce something a great deal more important than fighting ignorance with ignorance.

You have to sort of ... close your mind to the shit that is being spoonfed you in order to see that there are great possibilities outside of such an easy discourse. You have to run up and down the maze like Douglas Adam's Mice and Dolphins. You have to surprise!
 
Old 07-15-2008, 11:44 PM   #149
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Please save the personal exchanges for Private Messages and stick to the topic in-thread.
I apologize. I posted a response to the thread while you posted your admonition. I do, however, think that it was pertinent to the topic in that most people need a handle on the specific beliefs of another in order to more carefully appreciate where those belifs come from. I was only trying to better equip them in fairness as such.
 
Old 07-15-2008, 11:46 PM   #150
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But, a God can be everywhere at the same time. Jesus in the NT is a God, so he can be in heaven, on earth, in hell, and in a christian's heart all at the same time, plus on the cross while he is being transfigured.

It is absolute naivity to think a God like Jesus is not supernatural as stated in the NT.

You cannot use the NT to claim that the God Jesus could not be in heaven and earth at the same time.

Jesus the God can be in Alaska, Antartica, Asia, America, Africa and Australia, while sitting at the right hand of his Father, all at the same time, if the NT is true.

When Jesus said, I and my Father are one, according to John, not ONE meaning may suffice, if the NT is true.
You really have to be careful in assuming that you can define what a god is by a sort of Occham's Razor. God can do anything? God can't lie. God is everywhere? Then why would Solomon build a temple? Why is God's place said to be only in heaven? God knows everything? Then why send angels to Sodom to see if what people were saying about it was true? Why ask Adam and Cain what they had done?

Moses was a god. (Exodus 4:16) The Judges were gods. (Psalm 82:1, 6)

The word god simply means Mighty and or venerated. Not can be anywhere at once. Your reasoning doesn't negate the truth of the Christian Greek Scripture. Jesus was a god and a man.

You have to be careful also in assuming you can define God.

My point is basically that the entire Bible is a contradiction. Nothing with respect to the God of the Jews and Jesus his Son can be proven to be true, but there is a lot that must be false.

What language do the Gods of the Jews talk? Sounds like Greek to me.
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