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01-09-2010, 07:37 AM | #161 |
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01-09-2010, 07:58 AM | #162 | |||
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I assume that the Jews at that website will easily be able to adequately deal with any of your arguments, not to mention hundreds of Jewish scholars around the world. If Micah had been more clear about the life of a coming messiah, it is reasonable to assume that more Jews would have accepted Jesus. |
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01-09-2010, 08:01 AM | #163 |
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Based on the writings of Josephus, Tacitus and Suetonius and the advent of the Messiah called Simon Bar Cocheba, it is almost certain that the Jews expected a Messiah to be a ruler.
There is no historical source external of the NT that can show Jesus of Nazareth qualified to be called a Jewish Messiah. Not even if we include the incredible events of walking on water, transfiguring, resurrection and ascension to heaven would have qualified Jesus to be a Jewish Messiah during the 1st century before the Fall of the Temple. |
01-09-2010, 08:14 AM | #164 | |||
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-- Rabbi Moshe Alsheikh, Rabbi of Safed, late 16th century According to the opinion of Rashi and Ibn Ezra, it relates to Israel at the end of their captivity. But if so, what can be the meaning of the passage, "He was wounded for our transgressions"? Who was wounded? Who are the transgressors? Who carried out the sickness and bare the pain? The fact is that it refers to the King Messiah. --Herz Homberg (1749-1841) |
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01-09-2010, 01:18 PM | #165 | |
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http://www.jstor.org.libproxy.albany...us/1517283.pdf Additionally, applying the interpretation of the "suffering servant" to the entire song betrays an ignorance of Jewish Targumic practices. The Targums are paraphrases, not literal translations, and often draw on mystical interpretations, applying these interpretations verse by verse, without regard to plain meaning of the text as a whole. The following is a Jewish anti-missionary site and thus obviously has its own biases, but it explains adequately the practices of the Targumic translators, and reveals that while this particular line (and some lines a few verses later) was applied to the messiah, the one who suffers in the text is Israel, and that is how it's plain meaning was understood. The messianic interpretation was secondary, and in addition to the plain interpretation as referring to the suffering of the "Righteous of Israel"-- that is, according to Jewish interpretation practices, the text has a "plain meaning" and a "hidden meaning," and the latter is often applied to individual verses without regard to context. The "hidden meaning" as interpreted by the Targum draws the picture of the traditional warrior messiah who will come and redeem Israel from its suffering: http://www.messiahtruth.com/targum.html And of course, the way Aramaic-speaking Jews of the Roman period reinterpreted the passage has absolutely no bearing on how the passage was originally meant to be interpreted in the 6th century BC. For this we must look to the context of Deutero-Isaiah as a whole, and the entire focus of Isaiah 40-55 is the impending end of the Babylonian exile. |
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01-09-2010, 02:59 PM | #166 | ||
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01-13-2010, 10:15 PM | #167 | ||
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01-14-2010, 06:44 AM | #168 | ||
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01-14-2010, 10:09 AM | #169 | |
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~steve |
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01-14-2010, 10:10 AM | #170 | ||
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