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Old 09-07-2011, 02:49 PM   #391
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Ted,

Here's one for you.

You mentioned 1 Cor 9:1, and the possible linkage between the two 'juxtaposed' short rhetorical questions, 'Am I not an apostle? Have I not seen Jesus?'

This, depending on what way we read it, might, as I think you may have implied and with which I might have felt like agreeing, support the idea that apostles were, at least in one very important way, those who had seen The Big Man Himself. Maybe there were grades of apostle. I don't know.

But, does it not undercut the mention of 500 witnesses? Suddenly, right here, near the start of the whole shebang, the 'I've seen Jesus' set is not in the least bit exclusive, and we might reasonably ask, after reading 1Cor 9:1 a certain way, why there weren't 512 apostles (or 511, or 513, or whatever)?

Seems like if we want to keep the 500 in (and I know you're not arguing for it necessarily), we have to ditch any strong support in 1 Cor 9:1 for him citing the other select group. Which feels counter intuitive, because this implies him as saying, 'Am I not an apostle, and into the bargain, am I not one of the many, many blokes who has seen him, as well as my being an apostle?'. Makes one wonder how to explain how he got to be an apostle.
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Old 09-07-2011, 03:04 PM   #392
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or, a solution to that one may be that 500 saw him, at a distance (we have those sorts of things at a village here called Knock, in relation to his mum 'appearing' to huge crowds, most recently in the 1980's I believe) but that Paul was 'special' and had an intimate chat, but still, it's not much of a solution, since the answer to 'Have I not seen Jesus?' is arguably, 'who hasn't, mate?'
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Old 09-07-2011, 04:32 PM   #393
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Not such a good point. "Wouldn't it have sounded equally exaggerated in the 2nd C?" - no, it would more likely have been treated as a sort of numerology.

.
What sort of numerology Toto?
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Old 09-07-2011, 05:37 PM   #394
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And you can lead a gift horse horse to water, but you will never make his teeth into a silk purse. I think.

Never mind the bible. I need explanations of idioms used in this thread recently!
But then again what good would explanations do to a mick who climbs on the roof of the pub when he is told the drinks are on the house ?

Jiri
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Old 09-07-2011, 07:02 PM   #395
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or, a solution to that one may be that 500 saw him, at a distance (we have those sorts of things at a village here called Knock, in relation to his mum 'appearing' to huge crowds, most recently in the 1980's I believe) but that Paul was 'special' and had an intimate chat, but still, it's not much of a solution, since the answer to 'Have I not seen Jesus?' is arguably, 'who hasn't, mate?'
Well, it may be that "Paul" invented the 500 story. It is most fascinating that it has not been taken into account that "Paul" invented his stories about the resurrection to appear to have gotten authority from Jesus Christ whom he claimed was raised from the dead on the THIRD day.
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Old 09-07-2011, 07:27 PM   #396
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or, a solution to that one may be that 500 saw him, at a distance (we have those sorts of things at a village here called Knock, in relation to his mum 'appearing' to huge crowds, most recently in the 1980's I believe) but that Paul was 'special' and had an intimate chat, but still, it's not much of a solution, since the answer to 'Have I not seen Jesus?' is arguably, 'who hasn't, mate?'
Well, it may be that "Paul" invented the 500 story. It is most fascinating that it has not been taken into account that "Paul" invented his stories about the resurrection to appear to have gotten authority from Jesus Christ whom he claimed was raised from the dead on the THIRD day.
Paul invented the resurrection, the 500 and pretended that ditching Judaism made us all eternally happy and ..., but I think we are discussing the interpretation of the text for what is worth.

Paul saying 500 remind me of an old Mexican joke, it goes like this:

A general sends a trooper to gather information about the approaching enemy and report back.

The soldier returns very agitated and says that 5001 enemy soldiers are approaching, when the amazed general questions the very precise number the soldier explains that there is an officer in front and about 5000 following him.
Paul might have said 501 if he had been Mexican, [or British]
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Old 09-07-2011, 08:45 PM   #397
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EDIT: I just opened a thread on the issue found here

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You haven't read any relevant material. Try here.
I went to that link and did not see anything on the page given nor the few pages afterwards that addressed what I was saying.
The verb παραλαμβανω is used in a christian context for the transmission of traditions, ie from master to pupil. The words of Jesus from teacher to learner, the gospel from god to Paul, from proclaimer to proselyte. The rabbinic situation is specifically from master to pupil. The reference specifically talks of transmission by authorized teachers. Neusner also subscribes to this understanding of the terminology, as do various others (references on request). You cannot trivialize your way out of this. You need to understand how the terminology is used. You can't run off to the blue letter bible or your strongs or whatever excuse you have for not looking at the issue carefully.
I understand all that, but your link doesn't address the very reasonable possibility that it is not limited to that kind of transmission.
Confirmed examples?

You have a "technical" term that you are bending over backwards to avoid and apparently not reading what is said about the specific usage of the word noted in the secondary sources I've already given.

When Neusner gets down to the discussion (167), he has already cited the terminology and refers to, "transmission, and not merely tradition, of the exact words of a teacher just as he spoke them". With the same terms James D.G. Dunn says (197), "we must think of tradition derived directly from Jesus and transmitted by authorized teachers". In each instance we have a transmission by teacher to pupil.

There is nothing reasonable about the refusal to accept what a term means as presented by scholars who are not participants of the sort of debate we are engaged in, when you have no justifiable linguistic reason to do so. This is not a matter of common sense. Words have meanings in contexts. παραλαμβανω is already understood, not up for debate.
It sounds to me like it is not well-understood.
You needed to put "to me" in bold or something for rhetorical accuracy. Loose translation: "It is not well-understood by me."

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Your passage admits controversy on the issues of just how exact the verbal transmissions were, as well as how far back the evidence is clear. Your reference to James Dunn is not found in the book with a google search, and is not on page 197.
It just means that you don't remember the first reference I gave at all.

Neusner was the second linked example of the issue I posted. Dunn was the first, half way through this, noted as "Try here." And I specifically said, "Neusner also subscribes to this understanding of the terminology, as do various others (references on request)". What I have cited is a widespread scholarly analysis.

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What is needed is evidence that shows that traditions passed along from person to person for the purpose of instruction would have used a different word. You keep making the claim but where is the evidence?
No. I state the scholarly situation and you keep shunning it. (I did look for an ostrich smiley.)

You trivialize the abortion language of the passage, willing to give that away as sus. You ignore the "technical" meaning of παραλαμβανω. You claim that Paul includes material in his argument that he never functionally uses, as though placed it there like a decoration--you know, an unnecessary rehearsal of the reminder.

And, to top it off, you think that "we" is better associated with those in 1 Cor 15:3-11 who the Corinthians have basically never seen, when Paul spent the first three and a half chapters of the letter discussing the "we".
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Old 09-07-2011, 10:46 PM   #398
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Ted,

Here's one for you.

You mentioned 1 Cor 9:1, and the possible linkage between the two 'juxtaposed' short rhetorical questions, 'Am I not an apostle? Have I not seen Jesus?'

This, depending on what way we read it, might, as I think you may have implied and with which I might have felt like agreeing, support the idea that apostles were, at least in one very important way, those who had seen The Big Man Himself. Maybe there were grades of apostle. I don't know.

But, does it not undercut the mention of 500 witnesses? Suddenly, right here, near the start of the whole shebang, the 'I've seen Jesus' set is not in the least bit exclusive, and we might reasonably ask, after reading 1Cor 9:1 a certain way, why there weren't 512 apostles (or 511, or 513, or whatever)?

Seems like if we want to keep the 500 in (and I know you're not arguing for it necessarily), we have to ditch any strong support in 1 Cor 9:1 for him citing the other select group. Which feels counter intuitive, because this implies him as saying, 'Am I not an apostle, and into the bargain, am I not one of the many, many blokes who has seen him, as well as my being an apostle?'. Makes one wonder how to explain how he got to be an apostle.
Interesting point. Could argue for the other apostles having seen the Big Man during his heyday. While the disciples could make that claim, I assume that Barnabass and Apollos (both mentioned in 1 Cor), and perhaps James himself were considered apostles too so yes the number could theoretically have been as high as 512+ had those 500 all decided they would become preachers too. I think we have to add 'preacher of Jesus' to the criteria..

Gotta go, and as mentioned on other thread I will have to take a leave for a while due to personal issues. Enjoyed your posts,

Ted
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Old 09-08-2011, 12:06 AM   #399
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Maybe it was just an unsubstantiated, overstated rumour in the first place, and so was dropped by Gospel writers. It is possible for estimates closer to events to be exaggerated as much as later, when things have settled down, and are verified.
Exactly. There no doubt were many honest writers and skeptical people at the time who drew the line at certain things. If Luke, Paul's travel companion at times, really wrote Luke-Acts, and there is little reason to believe otherwise, then the mere fact that he said that he investigated everything carefully in the beginning lends some plausibility to the idea that he just couldn't find enough support for the 500 people claim--there is no indication of where that occurred. His account in Acts of what sounds like a smaller group could have been what he was able to come up with that others would corroborate....
Your post is most illogical. How in the world can a claim in gLuke be corroborative of itself? How can the test of the veracity of a claim be the claim itself?

Once the NT Canon is being questioned for its historical content then you MUST find non-apologetic sources of antiquity that can support the claims.

This is the worst that I have seen.

The NT is NOT a reliable source so please FIRST find a corroborative source of antiquity.
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Old 09-08-2011, 12:23 AM   #400
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....Paul invented the resurrection......
Not at all. Please, I do NOT want to get involved with statements that are NOT reflective of the WRITTEN evidence.

In the Pauline writings, the author claimed that he used WRITTEN SOURCES that mentioned that Jesus was RAISED from the dead on the THIRD day.

1Co 15:3 -4
Quote:
For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures. And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures.
Please, there were SCRIPTURES with the resurrection of Jesus according to the Pauline writings.

"Paul" in the NT Canon did NOT even claim he invented the resurrection.

Please, whatever you claim about "Paul" must be presented with your supporting documents from antiquity.

There is ZERO corroborative sources for "Paul"
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