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07-26-2011, 08:58 AM | #21 | |
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Warm regards, Sarai |
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07-29-2011, 12:54 AM | #22 | |
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07-29-2011, 10:08 AM | #23 | ||
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Like most folks, I have a "real" job and a wife & 2 children, all of which makes it difficult to find the time and resources to make a formal presentation. My wife has given the green light to rent web space and set up a couple web pages with discussion boards (one for my theory and one for promoting my profession), but other issues keep getting in the way. However, I think I can make a credible case, then announce the web page to the Corpus Paulinum and Crosstalk2 lists. Once I have worked through the feedback, I will write a technical article and see if I can get it accepted for publication in a peer-reviewed journal. My humble aim is not to shoot down Christianity or criticize others, but to make a case that catches the attention of a bright graduate student (or two). DCH (lunch break Guv'na) |
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07-29-2011, 10:47 AM | #24 | ||
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Hi DCHindley,
This sounds like a great plan. I would definitely encourage it. As far as I can see, there are four explanations of the wild divergence between the Gospel's Jesus and the Paul's Christ/Jesus: 1) Psychology of Paul. He didn't see Jesus and didn't talk about his life due to his inferiority complex with the other apostles who did see Jesus. This is the more or less traditional explanation. It explains the craziness of the text by basically saying that Paul was crazy. 2) Earl Doherty's hypothesis of Paul as a neoplatonist talking about Jesus as a crucified God, but not on earth. 3) A few ideas I've heard and tossed about that Paul generally uses Jesus as another name for Yahweh, but occasionally refers to the Jewish leader after Moses, Joshua Nun. The term might occasionally refers to a future messiah and perhaps to "the word of God" 4) Your hypothesis - Later interpolation into a first century Jewish text. Warmly, Jay Raskin Quote:
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07-29-2011, 04:32 PM | #25 |
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DCH, one particularly important problem with your theory, in my opinion, is that it takes for granted the use of epistolary moral exhortation within the context of Judaism, when, to my knowledge, there is no evidence of that; your Paul would be completely anomalous in that regard. On the other hand, moral exhortation was of course a commonplace in early (and later) Christian letter writing; Paul's letters merely represent one link in the chain.
It strains credulity to think that Paul may actually represent the only known Jew, within Judaism, to use that type of epistolography, but the proof of that comes only once the distinctly Christian elements of his letters have been stripped away. The reasoning is circular. |
07-29-2011, 05:40 PM | #26 | |
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If a writer called "Paul" used text attributed to another writer without acknowledging the source then we have a case of plagiarism not interpolation. |
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07-29-2011, 09:27 PM | #27 | |
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I thought that paraenesis (moral exhortation) was a part of Hellenistic epistolary form in general. Not a whole lot of Jewish epistles have survived, so saying that no letters have been preserved exhibiting epistolary moral exhortation from Philo or Josephus or one of the many Herodian princes doesn't prove that they couldn't, wouldn't, shouldn't or didn't write them. I would not even say that moral exhortation is the purpose of these proposed original letters of Paul. Paul had his own gospel (good news) to spread. I propose that Paul was likely a retainer of a Herodian household, and that he came to appreciate those gentiles associated with these households (slaves and artisans), and argued that they too could inherit, along with Jews by birth, the promised blessed future in the land promised to Abraham's children. This was made possible because Abraham was judged righteous in God's sight upon his belief in these promises despite his age and his wife's barrenness, which was before he ever circumcised himself. On this technicality Paul based his teaching that gentiles who also believed in this promise could justly inherit along with Abraham's physical children. It is no wonder that many native Jews found this idea offensive. Even he may have thought it offensive at first, suggesting he was not the originator of the idea of gentile co-inheritance, although I do think his "faith like Abraham" argument is original to him. DCH |
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07-29-2011, 10:55 PM | #28 | |
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07-29-2011, 11:09 PM | #29 |
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I have long agreed with DCH on an original thouroghly Jewish basis for the original and genuine Pauline epistles.
The problem is that it was not just nomina sacra and a highly evolved 'christology' that was latter inserted, but entire chapters were forged and interpolated, and entire letters were latter forged in his name, containing ideas and doctrines that are utterly foreign to the original Paul. I would estimate that less than 20% of the textual content of the so called Epistles of Paul actully originated with the original Paul. It is likely that we will never be able determine how altered these writings are, unless unmolested contemporary exemplars are unearthed. Building either a religion, or theories about "Paul's" life or religion, upon the premise of accepting the entire contents of these 'Pauline' epistles is like building a sand castle. You can while away your time, and build it any way you want, but eventually it is going to crumble, fall apart, and be washed away. |
07-29-2011, 11:57 PM | #30 | |
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OTOH, one can't reasonably, IMO, simply take the blanket view that there are specific, large chunks of interpolated material without making a good case for them. Does DCH have a good case? If he does, it shouldn't be hard to get at least some support for it among Greek academics, since it appears his cases are built off the Greek text. Until such time, I tend not to take it on board. That is to say, (no offense to DCH) that while it remains a fringe theory circulating only among a tiny minority of internet posters, I think the reasonable response in the first instance is to be skeptical about the theory, rather than skeptical about the Jesus content in Paul. Just my two cents worth. I am an interested layman, not an expert. I don't think just 'taking any theory on board at face value' before it has been reasonably well scrutinized, is generally a good idea, in this or in any other field. One possible trap is that one may simply find confirmation in the theory because it confirms a prior position. I note that someone on this thread is already, it seems, open to 3 separate 'myth' theories, which are not compatible with one another. I fear this suggests that it is the general attraction of the myth hypothesis which is in priority. Personally, I lean towards HJ, though I retain some agnosticism, and of course, we will never know for sure. Since I think a dose of agnosticism is healthy, I don't tend to be dismissive of MJ positions (nor am I dismissive of DCH's theory, for the same reasons). I just remain to be much more convinced. In the case of interpolations, the onus is obviously on the person suggesting there are interpolations to make a strong case. DCH, if you are reading this, perhaps you would be willing to delve into one or two examples? For example, you have bracketed 1 Corinthians 15:3-8. This is rather a large chunk, and just before, the text seems to indicate that we should expect to hear what it was that Paul 'received'? |
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