FRDB Archives

Freethought & Rationalism Archive

The archives are read only.


Go Back   FRDB Archives > Archives > Religion (Closed) > Biblical Criticism & History
Welcome, Peter Kirby.
You last visited: Today at 03:12 PM

 
 
Thread Tools Search this Thread
Old 03-18-2012, 01:00 PM   #21
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Nov 2011
Location: USA
Posts: 4,095
Default

So he first went to Jerusalem to meet "Cephas" yet he states that he was unknown to the "churches of Judea" only AFTER he had gone to Syria and Cilicia and not before? And what does the little side statement about Judea have to do with his travels to Syria and Cilicia? Verse 21 sounds like it should come at the end. In any case, he already met Cephas and James, but was UNKNOWN to the "churches" (what churches?) of Judea.

And it's funny that he says he was persecuting the "Church" and only THEN mentions how he had been advancing in Judaism AND before that set apart from his mother's womb. The events should be in REVERSE order.

In any event, the report of the people in Jerusalem was that they heard of his persecution of THEM ("us") as if the report came from somewhere else entirely, not themselves, but the author doesn't say WHERE he was doing the persecuting, which must be why the author of Acts tries to set it straight but obviously did not see the text in Galatians since if he was persecuting in Jerusalem how could the people mentioned in Galatians not have known him?

18 Then after three years, I went up to Jerusalem to get acquainted with Cephas[b] and stayed with him fifteen days. 19 I saw none of the other apostles—only James, the Lord’s brother. 20 I assure you before God that what I am writing you is no lie.

21 Then I went to Syria and Cilicia. 22 I was personally unknown to the churches of Judea that are in Christ. 23 They only heard the report: “The man who formerly persecuted us is now preaching the faith he once tried to destroy.” 24 And they praised God because of me.
Duvduv is offline  
Old 03-18-2012, 01:29 PM   #22
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: nowhere
Posts: 15,747
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Duvduv View Post
So he first went to Jerusalem to meet "Cephas" yet he states that he was unknown to the "churches of Judea" only AFTER he had gone to Syria and Cilicia and not before? And what does the little side statement about Judea have to do with his travels to Syria and Cilicia? Verse 21 sounds like it should come at the end. In any case, he already met Cephas and James, but was UNKNOWN to the "churches" (what churches?) of Judea.

And it's funny that he says he was persecuting the "Church" and only THEN mentions how he had been advancing in Judaism AND before that set apart from his mother's womb. The events should be in REVERSE order.
So you say. But Paul as a conservative Jew aggressively dealing with the equivalent of heretics (such as messianic Jews) does make sense. However, what Paul didn't bargain on is that god had plans for him: "messianism is alright. In fact, let me introduce my saviour..."

Quote:
Originally Posted by Duvduv View Post
In any event, the report of the people in Jerusalem was that they heard of his persecution of THEM ("us")...
(Members of our beliefs. Hence, "us".)

Quote:
Originally Posted by Duvduv View Post
...as if the report came from somewhere else entirely, not themselves, but the author doesn't say WHERE he was doing the persecuting, which must be why the author of Acts tries to set it straight but obviously did not see the text in Galatians since if he was persecuting in Jerusalem how could the people mentioned in Galatians not have known him?
Why are you talking about persecuting in Jerusalem? There is no sign of it.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Duvduv View Post
18 Then after three years, I went up to Jerusalem to get acquainted with Cephas[b] and stayed with him fifteen days. 19 I saw none of the other apostles—only James, the Lord’s brother. 20 I assure you before God that what I am writing you is no lie.

21 Then I went to Syria and Cilicia. 22 I was personally unknown to the churches of Judea that are in Christ. 23 They only heard the report: “The man who formerly persecuted us is now preaching the faith he once tried to destroy.” 24 And they praised God because of me.
spin is offline  
Old 03-18-2012, 01:49 PM   #23
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2012
Location: Massachusetts
Posts: 692
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin View Post
I'm highly suspicious of this line about the church of god. It doesn't reflect the understanding we have of Paul's notion of "church".
Why not? First, the notions of both individual "christian" (or Jesus sect) communities and the conception of these as components of a collective unified community are not mutually exclusive. Second, we find repeatedly in Paul "the ekklesia" in addition to the plural. Third, there are parallels of this type of thinking (independent communities representing a unified single community) in e.g., the qumran documents. And finally, we even find "the ekklesia tou theou elsewhere in Paul e.g., 1 Cor. 10:32. In fact, 1 Cor. 10:32 provides evidence as to how Paul conceptualizes the community. He advices them to be inoffensive/blameless kai Ioudaiois kai Hellesi kai te ekklesia tou theou. Paul, by claiming to be a Pharisee, is at least aware that there are different groups/sects within Judaism. So by distinguishing the "community of God" from "Jews" he isn't necessarily distinguishing them from Judaism, whatever that meant. He is, however, distinguishing a unified "true" community (in his mind anyway) compared to other groups/races/whatever.

The point, however, is while projecting the modern conception of "the church" into Paul's use of ekklesia is quite problematic, the idea that Paul did not have a sense that the various communities composed of followers of Christ could be conceptualized as a dispersed but unified community, and/or that Paul did not actually do this, is not supported by the evidence.
LegionOnomaMoi is offline  
Old 03-18-2012, 01:49 PM   #24
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Nov 2011
Location: USA
Posts: 4,095
Default

It is kind of ambiguous, but what seems to come out is that the folks in Jerusalem heard a report from ELSEWHERE that in that UNNAMED location the believers were being persecuted.

But isn't it strange that assigning the event to Jerusalem in Acts does not cause any redactor to see a problem. But again, it is just as likely that the writer of Acts never saw Galatians. But whoever decided to canonize them should have been concerned about this glaring discrepancy and to fix it......

After all, why wouldn't the author of Galatians want to reveal the location of where Paul was persecuting just a short time after the crucifixion considering it wasn't in Judea, and by that short time there were already "churches" in Judea though the persecution was against one "church of God."

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Duvduv View Post
So he first went to Jerusalem to meet "Cephas" yet he states that he was unknown to the "churches of Judea" only AFTER he had gone to Syria and Cilicia and not before? And what does the little side statement about Judea have to do with his travels to Syria and Cilicia? Verse 21 sounds like it should come at the end. In any case, he already met Cephas and James, but was UNKNOWN to the "churches" (what churches?) of Judea.

And it's funny that he says he was persecuting the "Church" and only THEN mentions how he had been advancing in Judaism AND before that set apart from his mother's womb. The events should be in REVERSE order.
So you say. But Paul as a conservative Jew aggressively dealing with the equivalent of heretics (such as messianic Jews) does make sense. However, what Paul didn't bargain on is that god had plans for him: "messianism is alright. In fact, let me introduce my saviour..."


(Members of our beliefs. Hence, "us".)


Why are you talking about persecuting in Jerusalem? There is no sign of it.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Duvduv View Post
18 Then after three years, I went up to Jerusalem to get acquainted with Cephas[b] and stayed with him fifteen days. 19 I saw none of the other apostles—only James, the Lord’s brother. 20 I assure you before God that what I am writing you is no lie.

21 Then I went to Syria and Cilicia. 22 I was personally unknown to the churches of Judea that are in Christ. 23 They only heard the report: “The man who formerly persecuted us is now preaching the faith he once tried to destroy.” 24 And they praised God because of me.
Duvduv is offline  
Old 03-18-2012, 01:58 PM   #25
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Apr 2003
Location: Australia
Posts: 5,714
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by mountainman View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by GakuseiDon View Post
The implication seems to be that Paul was known by reputation.
This implication was not required in the 4th century, when the forged correspondence between Paul and Seneca was in official orthodox christian circulation.
Pygmies.
GakuseiDon is offline  
Old 03-18-2012, 02:14 PM   #26
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: nowhere
Posts: 15,747
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by LegionOnomaMoi View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by spin View Post
I'm highly suspicious of this line about the church of god. It doesn't reflect the understanding we have of Paul's notion of "church".
Why not? First, the notions of both individual "christian" (or Jesus sect) communities and the conception of these as components of a collective unified community are not mutually exclusive.
But it requires a hindsight of unifying the notion of the churches.

Quote:
Originally Posted by LegionOnomaMoi View Post
Second, we find repeatedly in Paul "the ekklesia" in addition to the plural.
And in all cases but two it is rather clearly a specific church. But I spoke to this in the post you are responding to.

Quote:
Originally Posted by LegionOnomaMoi View Post
Third, there are parallels of this type of thinking (independent communities representing a unified single community) in e.g., the qumran documents.
As you are not yet showing any solidity to your arguing, I'd have to know exactly which passages you are referring to. And Qumran is a very different situation.

Quote:
Originally Posted by LegionOnomaMoi View Post
And finally, we even find "the ekklesia tou theou elsewhere in Paul e.g., 1 Cor. 10:32. In fact, 1 Cor. 10:32 provides evidence as to how Paul conceptualizes the community. He advices them to be inoffensive/blameless kai Ioudaiois kai Hellesi kai te ekklesia tou theou.
Paul is talking to the Corinthians. The obvious reference in the passage is the church of god that is at Corinth. He's not talking about Jews around the world, nor Greeks around the world, but those that the Corinthians come into contact with. If you Corinthians go to the assembly give no offense to those you find there.

Then we get Paul making a general comment a little later in 1 Cor 11:16, "we have no such custom, nor do the churches of God". What happened to the singular? In

Quote:
Originally Posted by LegionOnomaMoi View Post
Paul, by claiming to be a Pharisee, is at least aware that there are different groups/sects within Judaism. So by distinguishing the "community of God" from "Jews" he isn't necessarily distinguishing them from Judaism, whatever that meant. He is, however, distinguishing a unified "true" community (in his mind anyway) compared to other groups/races/whatever.
You are basically changing the subject. You aren't dealing with his use of the term throughout his writings. An ecclesia is a meeting of people. I don't think your 1 Cor 10:32 example works, which leaves the two that I specified earlier. The ones that don't fit in suspicious contexts.

Quote:
Originally Posted by LegionOnomaMoi View Post
The point, however, is while projecting the modern conception of "the church" into Paul's use of ekklesia is quite problematic, the idea that Paul did not have a sense that the various communities composed of followers of Christ could be conceptualized as a dispersed but unified community, and/or that Paul did not actually do this, is not supported by the evidence.
But then, you are stating this without evidence other than your attempt with 1 Cor 10:32. What makes you think that Paul had an abstract notion of "the church"?

I think it's highly suspicious that the only times we certainly get abstract notion of the church it is related to Paul persecuting.
spin is offline  
Old 03-18-2012, 02:17 PM   #27
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: nowhere
Posts: 15,747
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Duvduv View Post
It is kind of ambiguous, but what seems to come out is that the folks in Jerusalem heard a report from ELSEWHERE that in that UNNAMED location the believers were being persecuted.

But isn't it strange that assigning the event to Jerusalem in Acts does not cause any redactor to see a problem. But again, it is just as likely that the writer of Acts never saw Galatians. But whoever decided to canonize them should have been concerned about this glaring discrepancy and to fix it......

After all, why wouldn't the author of Galatians want to reveal the location of where Paul was persecuting just a short time after the crucifixion considering it wasn't in Judea, and by that short time there were already "churches" in Judea though the persecution was against one "church of God."
I don't see you getting far with the reasonings above. We're talking about Paul and there are well known problems of trying to make sense of Acts in respect to Paul. Acts is much closer to established christianity than Paul.
spin is offline  
Old 03-18-2012, 02:26 PM   #28
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2003
Location: Alberta, Canada
Posts: 927
Default

to Spin,
Quote:
The people in the churches of Judea in christ, ie the messianic assemblies or meetings in Judea, didn't know Paul by face, suggests that he was known through his activities in the diaspora, so people in Judea had heard about him through people that they knew in the diaspora, but had never met him.

There is no way of knowing the beliefs of those messianic assemblies, in that we don't even know if they knew anything about Jesus and Paul doesn't enlighten us. We never learn the beliefs of the pillars in Jerusalem. Did they believe in Jesus or something else, such as the messianism of John the Baptist? Paul always contrasts Jesus with Jewish praxis in Galatians: salvation comes through Jesus, not doing the law. His criticism of Peter is of a person who can't follow the law unless bullied into it, but he is supposed to follow the law. Does this sound like a person who had direct experience of Jesus and the replacement of the law? Clearly not. I think this Peter is Ur-Peter before he has become christianized. How come it's Paul flogging the Jesus message and not Peter and the rest of them?
I agree with you for the most part. I want to add:
The churches of Judea in Christ must have known a few things about Jesus (because they were in Christ). Were they fully Jewish Christians? We can only guess.
The beliefs of the "pillars" in Jerusalem were probably not Christian. But they believed in the Kingdom to come soon (as heard by JtB and Jesus) and the Kingdom would be for poor Jews. Later they enlarged the membership to God Fearers. Their Jesus was no more than a dead prophet.
Peter had direct experience with Jesus but certainly did not hear from him the replacement of the Law.
Bernard Muller is offline  
Old 03-18-2012, 02:37 PM   #29
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Nov 2011
Location: UK
Posts: 3,057
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin View Post
Acts is much closer to established christianity than Paul.
What did Paul teach that conflicts with established Christianity?
sotto voce is offline  
Old 03-18-2012, 02:52 PM   #30
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Nov 2011
Location: USA
Posts: 4,095
Default

Considering that the gospel of Christ of Paul seemed to suggest that others couldn't be completely "in Christ" anyway, it's interesting how the author of Galatians could consider others "in Christ" without Paul himself.
What was the revelation of others that was comparable to Paul's among the Jews in Jerusalem providing for faith in the Christ?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Bernard Muller View Post
to Spin,
Quote:
The people in the churches of Judea in christ, ie the messianic assemblies or meetings in Judea, didn't know Paul by face, suggests that he was known through his activities in the diaspora, so people in Judea had heard about him through people that they knew in the diaspora, but had never met him.

There is no way of knowing the beliefs of those messianic assemblies, in that we don't even know if they knew anything about Jesus and Paul doesn't enlighten us. We never learn the beliefs of the pillars in Jerusalem. Did they believe in Jesus or something else, such as the messianism of John the Baptist? Paul always contrasts Jesus with Jewish praxis in Galatians: salvation comes through Jesus, not doing the law. His criticism of Peter is of a person who can't follow the law unless bullied into it, but he is supposed to follow the law. Does this sound like a person who had direct experience of Jesus and the replacement of the law? Clearly not. I think this Peter is Ur-Peter before he has become christianized. How come it's Paul flogging the Jesus message and not Peter and the rest of them?
I agree with you for the most part. I want to add:
The churches of Judea in Christ must have known a few things about Jesus (because they were in Christ). Were they fully Jewish Christians? We can only guess.
The beliefs of the "pillars" in Jerusalem were probably not Christian. But they believed in the Kingdom to come soon (as heard by JtB and Jesus) and the Kingdom would be for poor Jews. Later they enlarged the membership to God Fearers. Their Jesus was no more than a dead prophet.
Peter had direct experience with Jesus but certainly did not hear from him the replacement of the Law.
Duvduv is offline  
 

Thread Tools Search this Thread
Search this Thread:

Advanced Search

Forum Jump


All times are GMT -8. The time now is 04:37 PM.

Top

This custom BB emulates vBulletin® Version 3.8.2
Copyright ©2000 - 2015, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.