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Old 11-14-2007, 06:18 PM   #31
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That is what the really is doing there: The two report that Jesus has risen, and the eleven reply that indeed, he really has. Then the two elaborate on their presumed initial report. A bit condensed? Sure. Ungrammatical or illogical? Not at all.
I don't think you are necessarily correct with this reconstruction. It seems to me, taking into account the clarification on who is offering the information about Simon, that the passage reads as though the two walked in on an ongoing discussion about the appearance to Simon and, after being given the "bottom line" (ie the Lord appeared to Simon), they shared their personal story of an appearance.

Whadayathinkathat?
Do you mean to say that the presumed prior discussion was amongst the eleven (not between the two and the eleven) and that the eleven were now saying amongst themselves that the Lord had really risen?

(Man, was that unclear. I hope you can sort it out. )

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Old 11-14-2007, 06:56 PM   #32
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If we assume your analysis of what happened, why did the eleven say to the two "The Lord has indeed risen", when the information is irrelevant to them, having seen first hand?
Confirmation.

The two (presumed): The Lord has risen!
The eleven: He has indeed [οντως]! In fact, he appeared to Simon!
You're inventing a lacuna then filling it as you like. That's convenient but unconvincing.

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Quite agreed that nothing in Luke justifies this claim. But for those of us with access to 1 Corinthians 15, there is no mystery at all....
You might look at any other text, but you need to show the relevance based on the Lucan evidence, not your ability to reconstruct a plausible interpretation based on some other text whose relevance you cannot show.

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You keep saying there are grammatical loose ends; but there are not. You keep justifying your grammatical loose ends with narrative concerns. The two are not the same, and your persistence in treating them as if they were is making me wonder if you know the difference between narrative logic and grammatical agreement.
My interest was originally discourse analysis. IF you don't want to talk about it, I can appreciate that. You're happy to be inventive to make the narrative discourse work.

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What I myself think about Jesus appearing to Peter is irrelevant. I think that Luke is aware of something like 1 Corinthians 15.5 and, like so many others, presumes (whether correctly or incorrectly) that Cephas is Simon Peter.
Read the Lucan text and stop trying to change the subject. If for a moment we accept 24:12 as original, it doesn't provide any hope for Peter having seen Jesus. Without it, there is no narrative justification at all for your reading.

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Not if it is Simon who has prestige. When Jesus was before Pilate, he was also before other Roman officers, but the writer wasn't interested. It is only Pilate who was of importance. You'll find a similar approach with Jesus.
If Cleopas has enough prestige to be named in 24.18, why not in 24.34? How is this situation analogous to completely unnamed Roman officers at the trial?
Sorry, you lost me. Who was talking about Cleopas?

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And what is the οντως doing in 24.34 on your reading?
The tomb was found empty. Hence the confirming οντως from the two.

ETA: The inclusion of 24:12 does seem to disrupt the wider narrative discourse. Remember that the women who found the tomb empty were discounted by the apostles as having made up a tale and they weren't believed. It is in this wider context that we should understand the οντως.

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Please note: This discussion has slowly turned into a discussion of which variant in 24.34 is original, and I am not actually all that interested in that topic right now. I jumped in because your first post did not seem to show any awareness that the participle in virtually the entire textual tradition (even the Byzantine and its offshoots) had to agree with the object, not the subject. You seem to agree (now?) that, if the majority participle is original, the Simon cannot be the companion on the road; that was my original point.
The discussion as I thought when I started the thread was about understanding the discourse cohesion, how the passage hangs together. You have been trying to make it work by breaking the discourse and inserting things that a reader couldn't get from Luke. You need to deal with the text as it is written, not as you want it. From there you have to resolve the problems it poses. The variant λεγοντες with a simple vowel change resolves the discourse problems as I see it.


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Old 11-14-2007, 07:35 PM   #33
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You might look at any other text, but you need to show the relevance based on the Lucan evidence, not your ability to reconstruct a plausible interpretation based on some other text whose relevance you cannot show.
This appears to be a way of saying that source analysis is taboo. I do not share that sentiment, and therefore feel quite free to look around for potential sources of the appearance to Simon.

The relevance of a Pauline text to Luke, BTW, is hardly a leap:

1. A Pauline text has an appearance to Cephas.
2. A Lucan text has an appearance to Simon; Simon, for Luke, means Peter.
3. The equation of Peter and Cephas is natural linguistically (even if mistaken) and quite common.
4. Luke knows of and admires Paul.

That Luke might know such a Pauline tradition, therefore, should not surprise anybody.

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My interest was originally discourse analysis.
Perhaps, but you kept calling it grammar.

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Sorry, you lost me. Who was talking about Cleopas?
No one. That was the problem, and why I brought him up. You should have talked about the naming of Cleopas in verse 18 if you were going to suggest that only Simon is named in verse 34 because he was the more prominent of the two.

(You even brought up Roman officers next to Pilate; yet none of those officers is named, right? How can that be analogous to Cleopas and Simon on your reading?)

So I ask again, why is Cleopas not prominent enough to be named alongside Simon (or at least included in a plural pronoun) in verse 34 if he is prominent enough to have been named in verse 18?

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The tomb was found empty. Hence the confirming οντως from the two.
You favorably modify this in your edit, but I just want to state that this reason, on its own and by itself, does not work. The empty tomb elicits talk of womanly nonsense in verse 11, which is diametrically the opposite of the hearty confirmation implied by that adverb.

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ETA: The inclusion of 24:12 does seem to disrupt the wider narrative discourse. Remember that the women who found the tomb empty were discounted by the apostles as having made up a tale and they weren't believed. It is in this wider context that we should understand the οντως.
Actually, in juxtaposition to what Doug suggested, I really [οντως] like this explanation.

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The discussion as I thought when I started the thread was about understanding the discourse cohesion....
(Apparently under the supersecret codename grammar, which I still am striving, vainly so far, to understand.)

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...how the passage hangs together. You have been trying to make it work by breaking the discourse and inserting things that a reader couldn't get from Luke. You need to deal with the text as it is written, not as you want it.
I agree, and I retract my proposed announcement of the two to the eleven before the dialogue in question. I think Doug has a point with the discussion that the eleven seem to be having at the time, and that you have a point with the prior disbelief of the disciples.

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The variant λεγοντες with a simple vowel change resolves the discourse problems as I see it.
Doug has, I think, solved the discourse problem nicely. The participle is in the present tense, which can easily have a progressive sense and generally indicates contemporaneous time: When the two found the eleven, the eleven were saying that the Lord had really risen, so the two added their own story to the mix (verse 35).

Now there is no unmentioned but understood dialogue between the two and the eleven, and the really follows both (either?) the ongoing conversation (along the lines of: He arose; he really arose) and (or?) the fact that the disciples had previously rejected the same basic story from the women (which is little more than simply pushing the ongoing conversation back a ways).

Your take, on the other hand, creates new problems:

1. We already know whom Luke is thinking of when he writes of Simon elsewhere (5.4, 5, 10; 6.14; 22.31). Why does Luke mean somebody different here?
2. Why specify that Jesus appeared only to one of the travellers? Throughout the entire episode the two hang together.
3. Why name only Simon? It cannot be that Cleopas was not prominent enough (compared to Simon) to name, since Luke does in fact name him.

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Old 11-14-2007, 08:48 PM   #34
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You might look at any other text, but you need to show the relevance based on the Lucan evidence, not your ability to reconstruct a plausible interpretation based on some other text whose relevance you cannot show.
This appears to be a way of saying that source analysis is taboo...
(??? You're doing source analysis? Funny, I'd never have guessed.)

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...I do not share that sentiment, and therefore feel quite free to look around for potential sources of the appearance to Simon.

The relevance of a Pauline text to Luke, BTW, is hardly a leap:

1. A Pauline text has an appearance to Cephas.
2. A Lucan text has an appearance to Simon; Simon, for Luke, means Peter.
3. The equation of Peter and Cephas is natural linguistically (even if mistaken) and quite common.
4. Luke knows of and admires Paul.

That Luke might know such a Pauline tradition, therefore, should not surprise anybody.
And you can't see that that is such an excursion, who knows whether and where you stopped to do your fishing? You can't expect anyone to take that as showing relevance, Ben C.

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Perhaps, but you kept calling it grammar.
Sorry, are you reading the same thread as I am? I thought the only time I spoke of "grammar" was when I talked about cleaning up grammatical loose ends.

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No one. That was the problem, and why I brought him up. You should have talked about the naming of Cleopas in verse 18 if you were going to suggest that only Simon is named in verse 34 because he was the more prominent of the two.

(You even brought up Roman officers next to Pilate; yet none of those officers is named, right? How can that be analogous to Cleopas and Simon on your reading?)
You seem to be confusing the narrator with someone who was present. The narrator mentions Cleopas, while someone present mentioned Simon.

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You favorably modify this in your edit, but I just want to state that this reason, on its own and by itself, does not work. The empty tomb elicits talk of womanly nonsense in verse 11, which is diametrically the opposite of the hearty confirmation implied by that adverb.
This doesn't seem to relate to the logic of the women's apparent tale which is confirmed by the two. You didn't believe it them, but he has indeed risen.

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(Apparently under the supersecret codename grammar, which I still am striving, vainly so far, to understand.)
I think you have a fixation on grammar. You used it so much in this thread that you've projected its use onto others.

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I agree, and I retract my proposed announcement of the two to the eleven before the dialogue in question. I think Doug has a point with the discussion that the eleven seem to be having at the time, and that you have a point with the prior disbelief of the disciples.
I don't see how it works. The high point in the pericope is the announcement that Jesus has risen. That is the purpose of the Emmaus story. Such an interpretation seems to trivialize the Emmaus story as a mere confirmation of what happened offstage. And it doesn't deal with the οντως.

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The variant λεγοντες with a simple vowel change resolves the discourse problems as I see it.
Doug has, I think, solved the discourse problem nicely. The participle is in the present tense, which can easily have a progressive sense and generally indicates contemporaneous time: When the two found the eleven, the eleven were saying that the Lord had really risen, so the two added their own story to the mix (verse 35).

Now there is no unmentioned but understood dialogue between the two and the eleven, and the really follows both (either?) the ongoing conversation (along the lines of: He arose; he really arose) and (or?) the fact that the disciples had previously rejected the same basic story from the women (which is little more than simply pushing the ongoing conversation back a ways).
Hopefully I've explained that your currently supported interpretation doesn't deal with the issues.

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Your take, on the other hand, creates new problems:

1. We already know whom Luke is thinking of when he writes of Simon elsewhere (5.4, 5, 10; 6.14; 22.31). Why does Luke mean somebody different here?
You didn't read my original post.

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2. Why specify that Jesus appeared only to one of the travellers? Throughout the entire episode the two hang together.
Already explained.

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3. Why name only Simon? It cannot be that Cleopas was not prominent enough (compared to Simon) to name, since Luke does in fact name him.
You get here through confusion between narrator and one of the figures in the narration.


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Old 11-14-2007, 10:14 PM   #35
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You're doing source analysis?
Correct, and thanks for noticing. I hypothesized that (something like) 1 Corinthians 15.5 was the source of Luke 24.34.

I wrote:

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Originally Posted by Ben
The relevance of a Pauline text to Luke, BTW, is hardly a leap:

1. A Pauline text has an appearance to Cephas.
2. A Lucan text has an appearance to Simon; Simon, for Luke, means Peter.
3. The equation of Peter and Cephas is natural linguistically (even if mistaken) and quite common.
4. Luke knows of and admires Paul.

That Luke might know such a Pauline tradition, therefore, should not surprise anybody.
You replied:

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Originally Posted by spin
And you can't see that that is such an excursion, who knows whether and where you stopped to do your fishing? You can't expect anyone to take that as showing relevance, Ben C.
The first sentence I do not understand (not even grammatically). The second appears to be a vigorous argument by denial.

If or whenever you feel like actually addressing the points I made, you know where to find me.

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I thought the only time I spoke of "grammar" was when I talked about cleaning up grammatical loose ends.
Correct. Those grammatical loose ends that do not exist.

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I think you have a fixation on grammar. You used it so much in this thread that you've projected its use onto others.
Let me clear this up for you. In post #1 you wrote:

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Originally Posted by spin
When Jesus makes his first appearance after his resurrection at Emmaus, the two who had the meeting run back to the eleven and one of them says, "The Lord has risen indeed, and he appeared to Simon!"

The two were not a part of the eleven, yet one of them is called Simon and needed no further clarification.
This statement is feasible only if the two are the ones talking in 24.34, and that is grammatically incorrect if one accepts the majority reading of λεγοντας in Luke 24.34. Grammatically, if one accepts the majority reading, it cannot be the two who are calling anybody Simon.

Ah, but perhaps you were thinking of the minority reading of λεγοντες in Luke 24.34 (though I should think you might have very well have mentioned that you were accepting Bezae over the other manuscripts in this case). Alas, however, I think not, for in post #9 you wrote:

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Originally Posted by spin
Hey, I did get something [from the article that Joe linked to]. Codex Bezae has λεγοντες, which cleans up any grammatical loose ends.
This appears to be your first awareness that this reading even existed. (It was certainly my first awareness of this fact.)

Which means that, in your OP, you were using the standard text of Luke 24.34, in which it grammatically has to be the eleven, not the two, who are speaking of an appearance to Simon, no matter what your sense of the narrative and discourse logic may or may not be.

It seems quite clear (A) that you were either reading that verse only in translation or misreading the Greek grammar; (B) I caught the grammatical mistake; and (C) your dialogue with me in the rest of this thread has consisted at least partly of avoiding having to admit your simple error.

Hopefully this explains my emphasis on the grammar. Your first post was, without the Bezae reading, a grammatical mistake.

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I don't see how it works.
That is not surprising somehow, given the absolute crystal clarity with which Doug expressed it.

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You didn't read my original post.
In your original post you suggested (via leading questions) that the appearance to Simon was a fragment from a different tradition. You offered no external evidence for this different tradition; it was, AFAICT, speculation.

In another post I also suggested that the appearance to Simon was a fragment from a different tradition. I offered 1 Corinthians 15.5 as evidence for a tradition that Cephas (which both means the same thing as and is often identified with Peter, AKA Simon). Your reaction was to dismiss this connection out of hand (no relevance, something about a fishing excursion, et cetera).

So, apparently, you are allowed to hypothesize a tradition for which you offer no externally confirming evidence, while I am not allowed to hypothesize a tradition for which we do have externally confirming evidence.

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Old 11-14-2007, 11:00 PM   #36
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You're doing source analysis?
Correct, and thanks for noticing.
If I was asking a question, it is probable that there was no substance to what you were hanging your idea of my noticing on.

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I hypothesized that (something like) 1 Corinthians 15.5 was the source of Luke 24.34.
That's not analysis. That's guesswork! and you'll never be able to confirm it, given that it is an ad hoc analysis and not part of a systematic one that gives the hope of verification or at least falsification.

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I wrote:
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Originally Posted by Ben C Smith
The relevance of a Pauline text to Luke, BTW, is hardly a leap:

1. A Pauline text has an appearance to Cephas.
2. A Lucan text has an appearance to Simon; Simon, for Luke, means Peter.
3. The equation of Peter and Cephas is natural linguistically (even if mistaken) and quite common.
4. Luke knows of and admires Paul.

That Luke might know such a Pauline tradition, therefore, should not surprise anybody.
You replied:
Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
And you can't see that that is such an excursion, who knows whether and where you stopped to do your fishing? You can't expect anyone to take that as showing relevance, Ben C.
The first sentence I do not understand (not even grammatically). The second appears to be a vigorous argument by denial.
The first comma should have been an em-dash. The second "that", ie "that that", refers to your numbered trip of four stopovers. Someone along the trip there is enough room for you to have caught any sort of wrong turn -- big whopper. The result of your long contorted trip was questionable, as is the import of my second sentence.

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If or whenever you feel like actually addressing the points I made, you know where to find me.
You missed it. You were too busy trying to keep a straight face while going on the Mack Sennett scenic route.

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Correct. Those grammatical loose ends that do not exist.
So the fuss about grammar has been swept under the carpet and you'll plead that there is nothing wrong with the narrative flow.

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Let me clear this up for you. In post #1 you wrote:

This statement is feasible only if the two are the ones talking in 24.34, and that is grammatically incorrect if one accepts the majority reading of λεγοντας in Luke 24.34. Grammatically, if one accepts the majority reading, it cannot be the two who are calling anybody Simon.

Ah, but perhaps you were thinking of the minority reading of λεγοντες in Luke 24.34 (though I should think you might have very well have mentioned that you were accepting Bezae over the other manuscripts in this case). Alas, however, I think not, for in post #9 you wrote:
You've basically got the events correct. And you have reflected the errors of my thinking aloud, but I don't mind being wrong in the process. The basic issue as I see it is still unresolved despite your various smoothing attempts.

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This appears to be your first awareness that this reading even existed. (It was certainly my first awareness of this fact.)
I'll let you into a little secret: I had the Kirslopp Lake note (3 pages) on my computer when Joe mentioned it. I just wondered why he was mentioning it. Hence my comment.

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It seems quite clear (A) that you were either reading that verse only in translation or misreading the Greek grammar; (B) I caught the grammatical mistake; and (C) your dialogue with me in the rest of this thread has consisted at least partly of avoiding having to admit your simple error.
Or I was thinking about other things.

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Hopefully this explains my emphasis on the grammar.
Not my lack of mentioning it.

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Your first post was, without the Bezae reading, a grammatical mistake.
You could be right.

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Originally Posted by Ben C Smith View Post
That is not surprising somehow, given the absolute crystal clarity with which Doug expressed it.
Just because you like it, doesn't make it right. You liked something else before that came along.

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Originally Posted by Ben C Smith View Post
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You didn't read my original post.
In your original post you suggested (via leading questions) that the appearance to Simon was a fragment from a different tradition. You offered no external evidence for this different tradition; it was, AFAICT, speculation.
You're sort of correct, but I think irrelevant, to the thought in the OP. You might claim the logic was wrong, but you haven't acknowledged it yet.

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In another post I also suggested that the appearance to Simon was a fragment from a different tradition.
Not from evidence within Luke, which is where you need to start.


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Old 11-15-2007, 05:41 AM   #37
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Not from evidence within Luke, which is where you need to start.
When I gave evidence from within Luke that Luke himself thinks of Simon as Simon Peter, you answered:

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Originally Posted by spin
You didn't read my original post.
The only part of your original post that I find relevant is the part in which you suggest multiple authorship.

But, if that is your suggestion, why are you now asking for evidence from within Luke? What good would that do, if you can simply refer back to the notion of multiple authorship again?

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Old 11-15-2007, 08:52 AM   #38
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Do you mean to say that the presumed prior discussion was amongst the eleven (not between the two and the eleven) and that the eleven were now saying amongst themselves that the Lord had really risen?
Almost.

"And they rose up the same hour, and returned to Jerusalem, and found the eleven gathered together, and them that were with them,

Saying, The Lord is risen indeed, and hath appeared to Simon.

And they told what things were done in the way, and how he was known of them in breaking of bread." (Lk 24:33-35, KJV)

I'm saying:

And the two travelers returned to Jerusalem and found the eleven and others talking about the appearance to Simon. One of them turns to the new arrivals and says "It is true! The Lord appeared to Simon!" And the travelers responded by telling them what had happened on the road.
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Old 11-15-2007, 09:51 AM   #39
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I'm saying:

And the two travelers returned to Jerusalem and found the eleven and others talking about the appearance to Simon. One of them turns to the new arrivals and says "It is true! The Lord appeared to Simon!" And the travelers responded by telling them what had happened on the road.
:thumbs:

I think this scenario is measurably better than my original reconstruction.

Now, if you can explain it to spin, even more progress will be have been made.

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Old 11-15-2007, 11:04 AM   #40
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I think this scenario is measurably better than my original reconstruction.
Thanks. I guess I can stop trying to learn ancient Greek now.

Then again, I might be able to answer this next question on my own if I don't.

"It was Mary Magdalene and Joanna, and Mary the mother of James, and other women that were with them, which told these things unto the apostles. And their words seemed to them as idle tales, and they believed them not. Then arose Peter, and ran unto the sepulchre; and stooping down, he beheld the linen clothes laid by themselves, and departed, wondering in himself at that which was come to pass. And, behold, two of them went that same day to a village called Emmaus, which was from Jerusalem about threescore furlongs." (24:10-13, emphasis mine)

Who is "them" here? Two of the apostles or two of the women? Is Cleopas an exclusively male name?
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