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Old 10-23-2008, 03:33 PM   #91
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Just to clarify, I'm not an atheist. I was an Evangelical Christian many years ago [I know you were addressing spamandham]. Mythicism is still the minority opinion about Jesus anyway.

If Jesus was just a cult leader, where did the gentiles get the idea of elevating him to the level of God? Were they using a pagan concept, more of a divine hero rather than the Jewish Yahweh?
Seems obvious to me that Paul was the catalyst for the transformation. Pagan concepts like virgin birth then got mixed in, and the amalgamation emerged over the kernel of historicity.
So you are claiming that the NT is just fiction. The authors just made stuff up.

Eusebius, Irenaeus and Tertullian wrote fiction when they implied or claim that the Gospels were written before the letters from the writers called Paul.

And you are claiming, without any evidence whatsoever, that the virgin birth was mixed in the Jesus story after letters of Paul.

You cannot use your imagination as history.


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Old 10-23-2008, 03:43 PM   #92
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Nobody said that every admission against interest was true. Nor, for that matter, did I say that everything gleaned from the criteria of embarrassment is true. It's simply considered more likely to be true. It lends credibility to the testimony.
Embarrassment does no such thing, it does not lend to credibilty. If an author already knows that people would think that a fictitious event did occur if it is embarrassing, he can simply fabricate an embarrassing scene to dupe the readers.
LOL. You're assuming a high level of cleverness and conspiracy that you have no evidence for. Mark appears as simply an imperfect 2nd hand reporter, not some ingenious fabricator.
t
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Old 10-23-2008, 03:56 PM   #93
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Seems obvious to me that Paul was the catalyst for the transformation. Pagan concepts like virgin birth then got mixed in, and the amalgamation emerged over the kernel of historicity.
So you are claiming that the NT is just fiction. The authors just made stuff up.
I made no such claim that the NT is "just fiction".

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Eusebius, Irenaeus and Tertullian wrote fiction when they implied or claim that the Gospels were written before the letters from the writers called Paul.
Or, perhaps they were simply mistaken. Or, perhaps some proto-gospels were indeed written before Paul's letters.

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And you are claiming, without any evidence whatsoever, that the virgin birth was mixed in the Jesus story after letters of Paul.

I don't understand you. Above you implied that it was fiction to say Gospels were being written before Paul's letters. Now you're saying the birth narratives were from before those letters?

Actually there is some evidence (1 Tim 1:3-4) that the virgin birth myth and genealogies was frowned upon, perhaps by Paul if he wrote that portion. Hard to imagine what else was meant by "myths and endless genealogies".

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You cannot use your imagination as history.
No, but a historian must use imagination to support a theory. So much fun, you know
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Old 10-23-2008, 03:56 PM   #94
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Embarrassment does no such thing, it does not lend to credibilty. If an author already knows that people would think that a fictitious event did occur if it is embarrassing, he can simply fabricate an embarrassing scene to dupe the readers.
LOL. You're assuming a high level of cleverness and conspiracy that you have no evidence for. Mark appears as simply an imperfect 2nd hand reporter, not some ingenious fabricator.
t
But, you just assumed you know Mark. That's not clever.

It is not really known who wrote the gospel called Mark, do you realise that? Yet you are claiming Mark is a second-hand imperfect reporter.

You just cannot use your imagination as history.
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Old 10-23-2008, 04:00 PM   #95
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Note that in Anglo-American law, admissions against interest are an exception to the rule against the admission of hearsay testimony, but that's it. Not every admission against interest is true. (And that may just be admissions against pecuniary interest - I haven't looked at that rule in a while.)
Nobody said that every admission against interest was true. Nor, for that matter, did I say that everything gleaned from the criteria of embarrassment is true. It's simply considered more likely to be true. It lends credibility to the testimony.
I don't think that it even rises to that level.

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And whether it's true or not really doesn't matter, it's an example of the criteria being used outside the study of the New Testament, something you said didn't exist.
The legal standard does not say that admissions against interest are more likely to be true. It simply allows evidence that would not otherwise be admissible to be considered by the jury. But the jury is not instructed that the admission is more likely to be true.

I have yet to see the criteria used in an academic discipline. You said you had an example somewhere. . .

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I'd venture that a criteria similar to "embarassment" is employed in most branches of history for exactly the same reason.
I'd venture not. But I will look at what you come up with.

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. . . It's not given the same limelight it is in Biblical studies simply because it's not as important to strip away agendas. And while I haven't studied every branch of history in even cursory detail, I have read enough to know that your suggestion--that it is only employed in NT studies--is false.

Regards,
Rick Sumner
If you think that there are no agendas in historical research, I doubt that you have read a lot of history. But I see no indication that this criterion, or the others that seem to be unique to NT studies, are used to strip away agenda items. I think they are used because the source material is obviously full of theological inventiveness and supernatural additions.

But I will wait for your examples. In previous discussions, no one has found any historians who used a criteria of embarrassment to decide on the historical value of ancient texts, outside of NT studies.
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Old 10-23-2008, 04:20 PM   #96
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But then enter the strident atheists who are just there to beat Christians over the head with, "Jesus never existed, you morons!"
That's fine and all, but I don't see anyone here doing that. I don't find the idea of a charismatic preacher implausible, but then, I don't see a mythical/mystical/legandary/satire/fictional origin as implausible either. The goal of historical analysis is to assess the most likely scenarios, not simply speculate on plausible scenarios.

I would however argue that the Gospels are not historical, nor were they intended to be. They are hero biographies (See Talbert's "What is a Gospel (or via: amazon.co.uk)"). The closest kin to them were almost all written long long after the hero had died (assuming he ever lived), to settle doctrinal controversies. The Gospels look exactly like that to me as well.

So, while it's possible there was a historical core to Jesus, we're not going to glean it from the Gospels.

I don't have anything more to say on the embarassment argument. I find it horribly weak considering Mark indicates no embarassment, and considering Paul did not mention the baptism at all. When combined with an analysis of the genre suggesting Mark was written long after the "facts", and also noting that it makes specific predictions that set a no-earlier-date of 70 CE (also long after the "facts"), the embarassment argument is weaker still.
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Old 10-23-2008, 04:46 PM   #97
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LOL. You're assuming a high level of cleverness and conspiracy that you have no evidence for. Mark appears as simply an imperfect 2nd hand reporter, not some ingenious fabricator.
t
But, you just assumed you know Mark. That's not clever.

It is not really known who wrote the gospel called Mark, do you realise that? Yet you are claiming Mark is a second-hand imperfect reporter.

You just cannot use your imagination as history.
Sorry, you're projecting. You're the one imagining Mark to be a clever conspirator who set out to deceive and fabricate.
t
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Old 10-23-2008, 04:59 PM   #98
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I would however argue that the Gospels are not historical, nor were they intended to be. They are hero biographies (See Talbert's "What is a Gospel (or via: amazon.co.uk)"). The closest kin to them were almost all written long long after the hero had died (assuming he ever lived), to settle doctrinal controversies. The Gospels look exactly like that to me as well.
Well the gospels look to me, as they look to most scholars, as being written a few short decades after the events they depict, which reduces the liklihood of complete fabrication. With Jesus is portrayed as saying "some standing here will not death", seems clear the author believes someone standing there was indeed still alive at the time he wrote.

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I don't have anything more to say on the embarassment argument. I find it horribly weak considering Mark indicates no embarassment, and considering Paul did not mention the baptism at all.
How you figure Paul into that is beyond me. If he was embarrassed by the idea of some mere human baptizing his hero, that would be a good reason not to mention it.

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Old 10-23-2008, 05:10 PM   #99
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...

Well the gospels look to me, as they look to most scholars, as being written a few short decades after the events they depict, which reduces the liklihood of complete fabrication. With Jesus is portrayed as saying "some standing here will not death", seems clear the author believes someone standing there was indeed still alive at the time he wrote.
This is not the view of most scholars. Mark is generally dated to 70 CE to 140 CE, more than a few decades after the event, and no barrier to partial or complete fabrication since Jerusalem had been leveled at that point.

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I don't have anything more to say on the embarassment argument. I find it horribly weak considering Mark indicates no embarassment, and considering Paul did not mention the baptism at all.
How you figure Paul into that is beyond me. If he was embarrassed by the idea of some mere human baptizing his hero, that would be a good reason not to mention it.

t
The idea behind the criteria of embarrassment is that some embarrassing facts were so well established in tradition that they could not be ignored. Why could Paul ignore baptism but Mark could not?
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Old 10-23-2008, 05:28 PM   #100
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But, you just assumed you know Mark. That's not clever.

It is not really known who wrote the gospel called Mark, do you realise that? Yet you are claiming Mark is a second-hand imperfect reporter.

You just cannot use your imagination as history.
Sorry, you're projecting. You're the one imagining Mark to be a clever conspirator who set out to deceive and fabricate.
t
Please read your posts, this is what you wrote.
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Originally Posted by teamonger
..Mark appear as simply an imperfect 2nd hand reporter, not some ingenious fabricator.
You cannot show that the author of Mark was a 2nd hand reporter, you are just making stuff up.

The author of Mark may have deliberately fabricated the first Jesus story in the NT.
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