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Old 04-14-2009, 12:08 AM   #21
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You give the impression that highly qualified authors can make good arguments for dubious thesis for which there is little evidence.

I would have thought that it was the quality of the evidence and not the qualifications of an author that make for a good argument.
One can appreciate skill and creativity in an argument that tries to work with the available evidence.

When there is no evidence the argument is called conjecture.

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If we had enough evidence, a simple theory would suffice as explanation. HJ would be obviously true or false.
When we have no evidence, the result should be self-evident.
But there is a great deal of emotional baggage at stake.

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The evidence for (or against) Jesus is ambiguous and of low quality, which allows greater scope for creativity on the part of the theory.
The Zero evidence in our possession suggests the HJ is false. But Biblical "historians" like Stark et al see wonderful demographics in the state of Zero evidence by means of conjecture. The common conjecture that "we have evidence" is false. To be quite explicit we do not have one iota of independent archaeological evidence corroborating the Eusebian document tradition. Not one iota! Surely we have been through this, and at the end of the day we have things like:

* the "darkroom" shroud of Turin
* the cross and nails of Helena
* the Dura house-church of Yale
* the ossuary of Oded Galan
* and a host of other manifest forgeries.

But at the end of the day no evidence.
This immediately suggests a fabrication of the early christians.
Horror of horrors says the emotional baggage to the intellect!
How can this be? Surely we believe in the emotional baggage first?
And so it goes on to the state of conjecture.
Apologetic conjecture.
Very apologetic conjecture.
This sort of stuff is highly regarded.
Its more or less conjecturalising about the "shared emotional baggage".
The hard line follows the carbon dating.
Why should it not follow the C14?
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Old 04-14-2009, 06:37 AM   #22
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The evidence for (or against) Jesus is ambiguous and of low quality, which allows greater scope for creativity on the part of the theory.
...and also great creativity in regards to the entire field of "Biblical History", which IMHO, is a bunch of speculative horse crap.
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Old 04-14-2009, 02:11 PM   #23
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...This was to give Paul legitimacy to the Roman population who were skeptical of novel things, but rather had an affinity for movements that had antiquity, like Judaism. The prospect of circumcision and observing the Law would not make a good sell to the gentiles, so Paul needs to have his gospel without those requirements,but still be affiliated with the Jesus movement for legitimacy.

Acts has Paul exempted from preaching the Torah observance and circumcision of the Jesus movement by his meeting with James (Acts 15:13-21) and preaches a Gospel suited to the Gentiles.

The author argues that Paul's letter to the Galatians seems to undermine the idea that there even was a meeting with James over the issue of circumcision and Torah observance because of how Paul castigates teachers who are telling Paul's church in Galatia that they need to obey the Torah and circumcision.

If there had been an agreement made with James, all Paul would have to do is remind those teachers at Galatia that it had been decided at the council, that Gentiles were exempt from the Law. Instead, Paul argues that those who teach the Law are under a curse, and they are preaching a false gospel...
The other side of this coin is that Paul may have wanted recognition as an apostle of equal status to the Jerusalem "pillars", and agreed to facilitate a collection for "the poor" in Judaea. Some interpret this as Paul buying the title, or bribing the Judeans.
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