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Old 06-29-2006, 07:35 PM   #391
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Originally Posted by Jehanne
Paul should have known more, unless, of course, his "Jesus" was of the "spiritual realm" only. And, if that was the case (and, I believe that it was), what was "spiritual" could, over time, become "physical." And, the rest, as they say, "is history...."
Am I reading you correctly if I insert, 'Saul/Paul should have known more, unless, of course, his "Jesus" was of the "mythical realm" only. And, if that was the case (and, I believe that it was), what was "mythical" could, over time, become "physical". And, the rest, as they say, is 'a story'....?
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Old 06-29-2006, 11:08 PM   #392
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Originally Posted by darstec
I think Paul's writing was second century.
It could have been, but if so, then the author was pretending to be a mid-first-century Christian missionary who was acquainted with Peter and other leaders of a Christian community in Jerusalem. In that event, all the biographical information in it is fiction, and the ostensible author of the epistles never really existed. If he never existed, then it makes no sense to say that Paul lied about his conversion or anything else. Nonexistent people don't tell lies.

I'm not insisting on Paul's historicity, but at this stage of my research I don't see any questions that are parsimoniously answered by supposing that there was no such man.
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Old 06-30-2006, 12:44 AM   #393
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Originally Posted by S.C.Carlson
Do you have any details about this "major book burning" that was "quite early on"?

Stephen Carlson
Who was it that said something along the lines of:

A book fit one of the following descriptions.

1. It is entirely in line with the bible - if so, it is not necessary, we already have the bible. Burn it.

2. It is contrary to the bible. If so, it is heretical and we definitely burn it.

3. It says nothing either way about religion. If so it is unecessary and we can burn it.

Essentially any book that is not the bible is to be burned according to this line of thinking.

I just can't remember who said it but it was one of the early chrisitians.

They wiped out much of our ancient literature through such thinking.

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Old 06-30-2006, 12:56 AM   #394
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Originally Posted by jjramsey
You are presuming that Jewish literature wouldn't be in Greek, but this is in fact false. The books of the Maccabees, for example, are written in Greek. Josephus, who is Jewish, also wrote in Greek.
Josephus is easy enough - he was jew but he did not write for the jews, he wrote about the jews. I.e. he told the story of the jews to other people of the roman empire.

There were also hellenized jews who used greek and the septuagint was originally written because many jews no longer could read their native language.

My point was just that "Christ" in jewish literature as "Messiah" occur several places. Josephus for one mentioned 3 - none of which can be identified with Jesus. In lieu of this it appears strange to claim that only Jesus was referred to as "christ". True, Josephus might have used the jewish term "messiah" instead of :"christ" when referring to these three but it is still essentially the same as "christ" it is just the jewish word for "christ" instead of the greek word.

To then claim that nobody ever spoke of any christ apart from Jesus sounds strange to me and unfounded.

In addition, the infamous paragraph by Josephus where christ is referred to could be a genuine christ reference - just not Jesus - and if so it would be an example of a reference for "christ" who is not Jesus. Of course, for this to work one must assume that phrases such as "supposed" or "which people believed was christ" etc might have been found in the original paragraph and removed by the interpolators. I don't know enough details about the paragraph to speculate upon that, just mentioning that it just might be possible that that paragraph is a genuine "christ reference" without being a reference to Jesus and if that is the case then it is an example of the things you claim is not there.

However, even if this is not the case and I admit that such speculation is weak, it doesn't really harm the main argument which just says that there were such references around on the basis that 1) It doesn't sound unreasonable that such references were to be found, we would expect them to be there and it would be surprising if they weren't and 2) We do know that christians had a huge book burning fest as soon as they got in position to do so and so wiped out whatever references that might conflict with their teaching.

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Old 06-30-2006, 01:06 AM   #395
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Originally Posted by jgibson000
Actually the claim is about Jesus not the Christ and if it is analogous with anything its with the confession/proclamation of a belief in who among rival claimants to the title of president, actually is.

Jeffrey Gibson
I read the dispute here a little like "the title christ was never used until christians referred to Jesus as Christ" and that is what I find meaningless.

Especially considering that "christ" means "annointed one" and that annointing people was something they did in a crowning ceremony etc to show reverence to a new king. As such "christ" simply means "king" and then claiming that only Jesus is christ is a little like saying that only Jesus is king and ignore that there has been numerous other kings both before and after.

So, if we can agree that "christ" can meaningfully be applied to other people both before and after Jesus then it also implies that it is reasonable to assert that there were "christians" before a bunch of people started to worship Jesus. This also implies that "christian" might not originally have been one single sect but rather a bunch of many different sects who may have had similarities and dissimilarities among them and in so far as they found common ground they would listen to what their brethren from the other sect said - that was exactly the kind of diplomatic travelling that Paul engaged in. By convincing those other christians that they fundamentally shared the same belief as himself - that their christ figure was essentially the same christ figure that he worshipped - he suddenly got a large group of followers all over the roman empire, much faster than if he had just gone to a street corner and started preaching.

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Old 06-30-2006, 01:53 AM   #396
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Originally Posted by jgibson000
The Funk quotation is taken out of context and it ignores not only the fact that he went on to write a book called Honest to Jesus but that the Jesus Seminar which he established and promoted trielessly (and of which he he was a prominent member) took as an well established and reasonable historical premise that there existed in the first half of first century Palestine a sage and social critic and reformer named Jesus who gave rise to the Gospel tradition that we now find enshrined in the Gospels.

Jeffrey
As I mentioned in post 30 earlier in this thread: the Jesus Seminar refused to even look at the MJ position. To quote the editor of Fourth R:
Quote:
I'm not presently inclined to devote an issue to questioning the existence of Jesus. The topic is a perennial one among skeptics. If someone wants to doubt the existence of Jesus, my experience is that no evidence or argument will change his mind. Such is the nature of skepticism. But the existence of Jesus is not a living issue among historical Jesus scholars. Perhaps it should be, but it just isn't, at least at present. With so many other living issues to explore, I don't think it would be responsible to devote the limited space in the 4R to your suggestion.
To which we can now add the earlier Funk quote:
Quote:
"As a historian I do not know for certain that Jesus really existed, that he is anything more than the figment of some overactive imaginations....In my view, there is nothing about Jesus of Nazareth that we can know beyond any possible doubt. In the mortal life we have there are only probabilities. And the Jesus that scholars have isolated in the ancient gospels, gospels that are bloated with the will to believe, may turn out to be only another image that merely reflects our deepest longings." Robert W. Funk, Jesus Seminar Founder and Co-Chair. (From The Fourth R, January-February 1995.)
So, is he sceptical himself, has he taken his own leap of faith, or is the whole premise of 'The Jesus Seminar': "well, assuming that there was a real guy behind all these Jesus stories then ..."?
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Old 06-30-2006, 01:58 AM   #397
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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver
It could have been, but if so, then the author was pretending to be a mid-first-century Christian missionary who was acquainted with Peter and other leaders of a Christian community in Jerusalem. In that event, all the biographical information in it is fiction, and the ostensible author of the epistles never really existed. If he never existed, then it makes no sense to say that Paul lied about his conversion or anything else. Nonexistent people don't tell lies.

I'm not insisting on Paul's historicity, but at this stage of my research I don't see any questions that are parsimoniously answered by supposing that there was no such man.
I haven't finished reading it myself yet (as it's rather long), but there is this: The Falsified Paul by Hermann Detering from RadikalKritik.
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Old 06-30-2006, 02:14 AM   #398
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Originally Posted by dog-on
Thus, if we could find an early reference to a non-Jesus-Christ, we could begin to prove, among other things, that Paul could have been, in fact, not Jewish.
Why would we want to do that? As far as I know, do we have any reason to think he is not jewish to start with?

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Old 06-30-2006, 03:24 AM   #399
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Originally Posted by aa5874
Am I reading you correctly if I insert, 'Saul/Paul should have known more, unless, of course, his "Jesus" was of the "mythical realm" only. And, if that was the case (and, I believe that it was), what was "mythical" could, over time, become "physical". And, the rest, as they say, is 'a story'....?
Yes.
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Old 06-30-2006, 04:23 AM   #400
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Originally Posted by Alf
My point was just that "Christ" in jewish literature as "Messiah" occur several places. Josephus for one mentioned 3 - none of which can be identified with Jesus. In lieu of this it appears strange to claim that only Jesus was referred to as "christ". True, Josephus might have used the jewish term "messiah" instead of :"christ" when referring to these three but it is still essentially the same as "christ" it is just the jewish word for "christ" instead of the greek word.
What is this "Josephus might have used" bit? Either he did or he didn't. You seem to be arguing on the basis of your personal incredulity, not on any knowledge of the extant literature. You have also provided no evidence of an early book-burning that you claim would have removed all evidence of references to a Christ that did not refer to Jesus.
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