Freethought & Rationalism ArchiveThe archives are read only. |
04-08-2004, 09:02 PM | #41 | |
Veteran Member
Join Date: Oct 2002
Location: WHERE GOD IS NOT!!!!!
Posts: 4,338
|
Quote:
29 Then the spirit of the Lord came upon Jephthah, and he passed through Gilead and Manasseh. He passed on to Mizpah of Gilead, and from Mizpah of Gilead he passed on to the Ammonites. 30 And Jephthah made a vow to the Lord, and said, "If you will give the Ammonites into my hand, 31 then whoever comes out of the doors of my house to meet me, when I return victorious from the Ammonites, shall be the Lord's, to be offered up by me as a burnt offering." 32 So Jephthah crossed over to the Ammonites to fight against them; and the Lord gave them into his hand. He had the history of Abraham right? God asked for the murder of his son, but he didn't go through with it. He had the Ten commandments second hand from the breath of God himself right? Thou shalt not kill and all. So therefore from what we've learned in this thread, since Jephthah believed that the spirit of God was upon him and that God wanted him to kill his child and he did, he was insane or demon possessed. It couldn't have been God that wanted him to fulfill his promise. God should have been satisfied with his willingness to fulfill his promise. It's just a little odd that the God inspired Bible doesn't point that out as the moral of this story. |
|
04-08-2004, 09:12 PM | #42 | |
Veteran Member
Join Date: Oct 2002
Location: WHERE GOD IS NOT!!!!!
Posts: 4,338
|
Quote:
|
|
04-09-2004, 06:14 AM | #43 | |
Senior Member
Join Date: Oct 2002
Location: Detroit, MI
Posts: 855
|
Quote:
My apologies for almost posting the same thing you did, later in the thread. If Jepthah knew the story of Abraham, he would have also known the story of Moses and the conquest, which contains stories of God-inspired killings (including a story where Moses and his men slaughter the Midianites--Moses' wife is a Midianite). I think that Jephthah's knowlege of the Heberew Scriptures is pretty much irrelevant. I would argue that even if God had never commanded (or inspired) someone to kill a member of his own family (and not just the willingness to do the act) that one who believes in a personal God could not dismiss the possibity that God could give the command because he or she believes in the concept that there is higher power with access to all knowledge that we humans cannot possibly understand. It is also quite possible that (1) if Jephthah was a person and the events actually ocurred more or less in the manner described and (2) Jephthah was familiar with at least some of the Torah (at least the Abrahamic near sacrifice story) that he may have had only had knowlrdge of the E account, in which no angel stops Abraham from slaying Isaac and Isaac is never heard from again (in the E account that is). Dave |
|
04-09-2004, 08:47 AM | #44 | ||||
Regular Member
Join Date: Jan 2004
Location: earth
Posts: 414
|
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
|
||||
04-09-2004, 08:53 AM | #45 | |
Regular Member
Join Date: Jan 2004
Location: earth
Posts: 414
|
Quote:
As for the Leviticus verse it also apparently has nothing to do with Israelites sacrificing their own young children according to J E Hartley. “27:29 Another law regarding חר×?, “the devoted or proscribed thing,â€? is given. In most other passages the use of חר×? describes something so taboo that it must be completely destroyed. Certain spoils taken in a holy war were so devoted (e.g., Josh 6:17; 7:1, 11–13, 15). If a person becomes so devoted, that one comes under the death penalty; there is no means of פדה, “redemption,â€? for that person. How does a person in Israel come to be classified as “a devoted thingâ€?? The law in Exod 22:19[20] provides an explanation. It states that a person who sacrifices to a pagan god becomes devoted and falls under the death penalty. That party was most likely declared devoted by a judicial body. Another example is found in Deut 13:13–19(12–18); any group of wicked men who lead the community away from service to God become devoted to destruction. (Hartley, J. E. 1998. Vol. 4: Word Biblical Commentary : Leviticus)â€? I doubt you could find any conservative scholar arguing these passages were commands for the Israelites to kill their own young. |
|
04-09-2004, 08:57 AM | #46 | |
Regular Member
Join Date: Jan 2004
Location: earth
Posts: 414
|
Quote:
Sorry I don’t think I will respond to your post directed at me before this one as it is mostly nonsense (Although if you insist I will show you why). |
|
04-09-2004, 09:00 AM | #47 |
Regular Member
Join Date: Sep 2001
Location: Grand Prairie, Texas
Posts: 435
|
Should we start referring to this as Father Abraham Syndrom? FAS?
Ever thought about that whole "Father" Abraham trying to kill his own kid thing? hehe |
04-09-2004, 09:02 AM | #48 | |
Regular Member
Join Date: Jan 2004
Location: earth
Posts: 414
|
Quote:
I love yez all! (with Jeff Phenek boxer slur accent) LP |
|
04-09-2004, 09:05 AM | #49 |
Veteran Member
Join Date: Jun 2000
Location: USA
Posts: 5,046
|
If God speaks to you, are you insane?
--No, but God is. Next? |
04-09-2004, 10:36 AM | #50 | |
Veteran Member
Join Date: Apr 2001
Location: somewhere in the known Universe
Posts: 6,993
|
Quote:
The Bible clearly states that God has commanded such things, and therefore (given the apriori assumption this God exists) it is reasonable to conclude that God was talking to this woman. This woman surely believed (just as Andre Yates believed, and sooooo many others who have killed at what they felt was the urging of God) God was speaking to her. The question is how can one determine whether or not a God (the perfectly good deity Christianity claims exists) or someother entity is ACTUALLY speaking to any individual? How do you know that Satan isn't speaking to you? Do you simply feel that anything "good" (which obviously this woman thought it was good to kill her children) comes from God and anything bad (which mentally healthy people find murdering living children to be) comes from Satan? what is your test? As atheists who have no apriori assumption the the existence of gods and demons, we try our best to make educated guesses based on the facts in evidence. The facts are that we know mental illnesses (organic defects) have been proven to causes hallucinations that can be described as visions and the hearing of voices in ones head. Usually these voices compel the mentally ill individual to do things, very often bad things. We know that medication can abate these symptoms in most people and the voices go away. We have no evidence that demons possess people, or even that demons exists. Wem know people see things that don't actually exist and experience very intense sensory inputs from taking hallucinatory drugs. These instances are verifiable through reproduction in laboratory experiments. Therefore it seems there is a logical explanation for these "voices" and "visions" and in this case it is mental illness. Not God, not demons ... but the Bible gives plenty of evidence that God has and is capable of commanding such attrocities as directing a mother to stone her children to death. Brighid |
|
Thread Tools | Search this Thread |
|