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Old 12-03-2005, 09:40 AM   #31
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Old 12-03-2005, 11:12 AM   #32
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Default By what criteria were the books of the New Testament Canon voted upon?

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Originally Posted by praxeus
Your critique of how the decisions might have been made "10 years" after Jesus lived is based on your particular mind-set today (prove this, prove that.. which is irrelevant to your original question). If in fact the Bible events occurred as stated, the state of mind in Israel in 40-60 AD would have been far more receptive to receiving an orderly written account, as per eg Luke. They would not have had your layers of historical suspicion, since the events were of recent vintage, local and checkable, and the new Christian movement was spreading throught the land of Israel and beyond.
Events are not the issue. The issue is writings. Many writings were available other than the ones that were chosen. What distinguised to the choosers which writings ought to be included in Scripture and which writings ought not to be included. How could the choosers have been reasonably certain that they were choosing the right writings?

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It is impossible to verify the claims that Jesus was conceived by the Holy Spirit, was born of a virgin, never sinned, and that his shed blood and death actually remitted the sins of mankind.
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Originally Posted by praxeus
True, without a measure of faith.
What can be verified without a measure of faith?

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As Farrell Till has aptly said, anyone living or travelling in any geographic region can easily state what is happening where he lives or travels.
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Originally Posted by praxeus
That already places the authors right in Israel, and working with the times and region with which they are familiar. Let's remember that geographic data is intermixed with historic personages and titles and particular spots and all sorts of historical relationships that would be great effort for somebody to do who was not involved in the events of 30-50 AD (and with eyewitnesses as per Luke's statement :-). Much more than just geography alone. In that case they would almost surely make some doozy blunders that would find them out, and/or they would write ultra-cautiously about folks so as to not risk giving a wrong ID.
The only claims in the book of Acts that most people would have bothered to attempt to verfiy would have been the supernatural claims. Accurate geography can be found in many religious books, and many secular books as well. The Enclopedia Britannica 2003 says "Acts was written in Greek, presumably by the Evangelist Luke, whose gospel concludes where Acts begins, namely, with Christ's Ascension into heaven. Acts was apparently written in Rome, perhaps between AD 70 and 90, though some think a slightly earlier date is also possible." The Microsoft Encarta Enclopedia 2005 says "Because the Acts is designed to serve as a second volume, however, the book must be a least slightly later than the Gospel of Luke, and the Giospel is almost certainly later than that of Mark. The result is to put Luke's two volumes sometime in the last two decades fo the 1st century." So, the book of Acts might not have been written until 90 A.D., or even later, making adequate examination of supernatural claims impossible.

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The moment the mythicist concedes that Luke and the other writers wrote excellent history it puts a big crimp on their theories. One problem is that John the Baptist, Herod, Pilate, Caiaphas and many others are known historical figures. So the Gospels become one huge docudrama, an unusual genre, where essentially all the details except Jesus are accurate, which would all be made up. One then also needs to come up with a scenario as to how and why somebody put so much effort and accuracy into a book that for them was fiction, and how it would be accepted if it did not dovetail with local remembrance. Royalties?
So is it your position that wherever you find accurate geography in various religious books that that are included with supernatural claims, the supernatural claims must automatically be true? Supernatural claims in the book of Acts might not have been the result of deliberate fraud, but of innocent but inaccurate relelations, which are not at all uncommon in various religious books.

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Do you have any non-Biblical evidence that Jesus healed people. What we need is first hand or second hand evidence, and preferably from non-Christians.
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And then you would believe?
It would certainly be a good start. Do you not make the very same requirements regarding claims of miracles in other religous books? Why do you believe that Jesus healed people? Do you believe that God performs miracles healings today?
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Old 12-03-2005, 07:06 PM   #33
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> First, could you specifically indicate the canon lists that mention these
> books ?

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Originally Posted by robto
Codex claromontanus: Barn, Shep, Acts of Paul, Rev. of Peter
Apostolic canons: 1, 2 Clement, Apost. Const.
Athanasius: Didache and Shep as teaching books
Rufinus: Shep, the "Two Ways", and Preaching of Peter as teaching books
Number of canon lists = 0

(Which is, btw, the clearest issue, not whether an alexandrian codex has another book included.. that does not tell us what was considered scripture, even more so to those like myself who consider the two alexandrian manuscripts as demonstrably woefully corrupt.
The church writer references are more consequent, and you do get an occasional Hermas dabble and a couple of other books as referenced, out of a couple of dozen writer)

The idea that there was no Aramaic translation to 400 A.D. is quite questionable, btw, but a little outside our purview. On that one point the Aramaic primacists make good sense, in that the textual scholars pushed the date back from c.200 to c.400, possibly because the Peshitta was too Byzantine for their (now defacto discarded) Lucian recension theories.

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Old 12-03-2005, 07:38 PM   #34
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The moment the mythicist concedes that Luke and the other writers wrote excellent history it puts a big crimp on their theories. One problem is that John the Baptist, Herod, Pilate, Caiaphas and many others are known historical figures. So the Gospels become one huge docudrama, an unusual genre, where essentially all the details except Jesus are accurate, which would all be made up.
Prax, do you actually know anything about ancient fiction? Because what you've described is precisely the situation in the type of Greek fiction that was prevalent during the first and second centuries. Nothing would more normal than to have a group of historical characters interacting with a fictional hero. Jean Alvares (1997) notes of Chaereas and Callirhoe, which she dates in the mid to late first century CE: "For example, Hermocrates, Ariston, Statira, and Artaxerxes are historical figures. Mithridates may recall a Mithridates that, according to Ktesias, Statira helped become satrap."

And of course, the novel's heroes are fictional.

Luke-Acts, and especially Acts, is typical Greek fiction.

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One then also needs to come up with a scenario as to how and why somebody put so much effort and accuracy into a book that for them was fiction, and how it would be accepted if it did not dovetail with local remembrance. Royalties ?
They obviously had, as they still do today, recruiting functions. For example, Mark was most probably a baptismal document. And since there was no local remembrance, they didn't need to dovetail with any local memories -- why would they, writing from places far outside Palestine?. Nor did the writers care much for historical legitimacy, except Luke, who had grasped Mark's potential as history and as propaganda that could, properly deployed, support orthodox legitimacy and unite the Pauline and Petrine wings of the early Church.

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Old 12-03-2005, 08:16 PM   #35
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They obviously had, as they still do today, recruiting functions.
So your working theory is that the 27 books of the New Testament were like a serial edition romance novel, sans royalties, using the Hebrew Tanach as storyline backdrop, getting the history and environment right while 'far from' Israel (there was no Palestine at that time) and far after the time of the story. This novel either accidentally changed the spiritual map of the world, or was carefully planned to do so (probably the Illuminati), and then brought or smuggled into Israel sometime after the Temple destruction.



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Old 12-03-2005, 08:54 PM   #36
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Quote:
Originally Posted by praxeus
So your working theory is that the 27 books of the New Testament were like a serial edition romance novel, sans royalties, using the Hebrew Tanach as storyline backdrop, getting the history and environment right while 'far from' Israel (there was no Palestine at that time) and far after the time of the story. This novel either accidentally changed the spiritual map of the world, or was carefully planned to do so (probably the Illuminati), and then brought or smuggled into Israel sometime after the Temple destruction.
Yup. Just like the divinely inspired Quran which led to the spread of Islam from the Far East to the West Coast of Africa in far less time then the equivalent spread of Christianity.

What does either "change of the spiritual map of the world" have to do with the value of the myths spread by these cults?
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Old 12-04-2005, 01:05 AM   #37
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Yup. Just like the divinely inspired Quran which led to the spread of Islam from the Far East to the West Coast of Africa in far less time then the equivalent spread of Christianity.
So the quran was also a romance novel of a serial of dozens of books done by the illuminati sans royalties that was accidentally accepted as a true history ?

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Originally Posted by John A. Broussard
What does either "change of the spiritual map of the world" have to do with the value of the myths spread by these cults?
What does your evaluation of the value of the beliefs of the NT and Tanach believers about sin and holiness and repentance and Messiah have to do directly with our theories of its origin, propagation and transmission?
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Old 12-04-2005, 03:38 AM   #38
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Quote:
Originally Posted by praxeus
So your working theory is that the 27 books of the New Testament were like a serial edition romance novel, sans royalties, using the Hebrew Tanach as storyline backdrop, getting the history and environment right while 'far from' Israel (there was no Palestine at that time) and far after the time of the story. This novel either accidentally changed the spiritual map of the world, or was carefully planned to do so (probably the Illuminati), and then brought or smuggled into Israel sometime after the Temple destruction.
No, prax, and I thoroughly dislike this kind of strawman response. It is difficult to take you seriously when you write like this.

Here's how I see it. A group of authors in an emergent cult created a narrative of the cult's mythical founder. The first of these narratives, the Gospel of Mark, simply told a story. The function of the narrative was largely recruiting and baptismal, and was not intended as history. It was certainly read aloud to crowds, and probably performed as well, as a number of exegetes have argued. Like Greek fiction, it draws on the religious heritage of those it perceived as its forefathers. Like Greek fiction, it is told in an episodic manner, and like the Greek romances, contains scenes of resurrections, trials, empty tombs, entrances into the city, portentious visits to the temple after the entrance, being taken as a divine being by crowds, and so on. All of the things that you think of as "historical" are actually conventions of Greek fiction. Like Greek fiction, it is created by paralleling famous episodes from history and literature. The writer of Mark, like other writers on Jesus, like the writer of Ben Hur, and Left Behind, and a thousand similar narratives, drew on the literary conventions, devices, and techniques of his day to create this narrative. I would say that of the four canonical gospel writers, the writer of the Mark was the only authentic genius of the lot.

The next writer was Matthew, who was simply butt-stupid and had no clue what Mark was about. He reconstructed Mark to get rid of the "errors" and make plain the prophecies that the writer of Mark had left for the reader to puzzle out -- like all good writers, the writer of Mark didn't rub his audience's face in the meaning of his text. I cannot tell if Matt thought what he was writing was history or not.

The way I see it, Luke came along last, integrating a version of John, along with the other two Synoptics, into his avowedly "historical" work -- did I mention that mimicking history was a common technique among writers of Greek fiction? -- with the goal of resolving theological conflicts in the Church, as well as locating the tale in history. That writer was a skilled writer, but not the genius that the writer of Mark was. The writer of Luke, in contrast to the writer of Mark, presented her work as history although she knew that it was not.

The narrative itself was not the thing that redrew the map of history, prax, but the Church's decision to organize itself as a proto-Leninist society with tight organizational controls, strong insistence on particular doctrines, top-down control, cells (churches), and political overseers (bishops) as well as cell leaders (pastors). This Leninist organization has proven highly adaptable and successful in spreading various political and social beliefs (see advance of Communism and Christianity). The spread of Christianity was due to many factors, but had nothing at all to due with the content or quality of its narratives.

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Old 12-04-2005, 06:02 AM   #39
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Default By what criteria were the books of the New Testament Canon voted upon?

Message to praxeus: Please reply to my post #32.
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Old 12-04-2005, 06:51 AM   #40
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Quote:
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Message to praxeus: Please reply to my post #32.
Johnny, if I thought that either encyclopedia authority you appeal to was even close to accurate in their appraisal, with Luke written at the end of the century, I would not discussing these issues. Personally I consider every book as being written before 70 AD, likely even Revelation.

Quoting encyclopedias as authorities who are obviously using liberal scholarship criteria is not really the way to engage me in constructive dialog.

On the "choosers" question, I have answered that numerous time, including a good hearty "I dunno" to the exact answer. Now if the NT writings were 90AD and later, and written in a foreign land without the personal first-hand investigative research asserted by Luke and supported by his accuracy, that might be a more interesting question. However that is not my view at all.

Johnny, I can only dialog from my understanding, now those of other folks who have a lower view of the NT accuracy and authority.

And I view all the first-person proclamations of authorship and dating as correct and truthful, (and if even one were wrong then I would not accept the NT) and the prophecies as being given and written before the Temple destruction in 70 AD.

On the measure of faith..

Hebrews 11:6 -
But without faith it is impossible to please him: for he that cometh to God must believe that he is, and that he is a rewarder of them that diligently seek him.

One who does seek God, and just languishes in a view of skepticism, looking for the various possible holes he can find in the scriptures, will of course discount the declaration of the scriptures of the virgin birth and the other issues mentioned above. And if a Christian claims he can prove them to you, I believe he is not speaking accurately. There is a primary element of faith involved in the Messianic walk.

As for other religions claims of supernatural events, I don't remember any discussions where I claimed they didn't occur. Maybe a short discussion with a morman about whether the plates were received from an angel, a demon, or simply some handiwork of Joe Smith. With the islamists I am far more interested in their innate conceptual problems, and generally they don't make a supernatural appeal. So I am unclear what the proposed analogy here is.

Shalom,
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