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Old 04-29-2012, 08:31 AM   #31
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Hi. First post. Wasnt there a time when Christians were called Nasarene?
Not really. When the Jewish High Priest wanted to complain to the Romans about Paul, he could hardly tell them that Paul followed his own Messiah. He had a lawyer in tow, but it's doubtful that he needed legal advice on that particular point.

Yes, it's true that present day Jews refer to Jesus' followers as Christians, but then people don't think so straight these days.
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Old 04-29-2012, 08:32 AM   #32
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Josephus does sometimes expect background knowledge in his readers. He may have expected them to know that Christians followed Jesus Christ.

As an example of Josephus requiring background knowledge see this passage from Antiquities book 17.
Quote:
He [Antipater] was persuaded by these last, and sailed on, and landed at the haven called Sebastus, which Herod had built at vast expenses in honor of Caesar, and called Sebastus
This requires the reader to realise that the Caesar involved is Augustus and that Sebastus is a Greek translation of Augustus.

Andrew Criddle
Hi Andrew,
this is an unconvincing argument, I am afraid. What Ant 20.9's "him called Christ" and the "tribe of Christians" in the TF assume as "background knowledge" is the recognition of "Christ" (hence "Christians") as a family name or a restricted cognomen by which to identify an individual (and the cult in his name). IIUC "Christ" for Josephus was a Jewish royal epithet.

Best,
Jiri
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Old 04-29-2012, 09:04 AM   #33
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Originally Posted by Steven Carr View Post

He simply reconstructs a text which pleases him, while scolding mythicists for claiming interpolations whenever it suits them.


According to Bart, Josephus informed his readers that Christians were named after Jesus. Which must have puzzled them. Why are they called Christians when the guy was called Jesus?

Perhaps Josephus was thinking of Jesuits, (or did they come later?)
Ehrman is so illogical and seem to have forgotten that Antiquities of the Jews was WRITTEN c 93 CE AFTER the Gospels and the Pauline letters should have been ALREADY composed where Paul called Jesus the CHRST over 300 TIMES.

Ehrman seems to have forgotten that Paul and the Apostles should have ALREADY preached that Jesus was Christ in ROME, and the Roman Empire LONG LONG BEFORE Josephus wrote in 93 CE.

Ehrman seems to have forgotten the History of Paul and the Apostles who supposedly preach Jesus was Christ since the Day of Pentecost or during the reign of King Areatas 37-41 CE.

Ehrman seems to have forgotten that Josephus was supposed to be a Contemporary of the Apostles and Paul.

Ehrman have forgotten his own history of the Christians.

Christians were supposedly EXECUTED under NERO--25 years BEFORE Antiquities was written.

It is just ABSURD that Christians were puzzled as claimed by Ehrman.

Ehrman is ILLOGICAL and he FORGOT his own history of the Christians.
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Old 04-29-2012, 10:26 AM   #34
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Actually it makes complete sense when you factor in language.

Isn't Christ a Greek word and the translation of Masih (messiah= anointed or respected) in Aramaic?
The relationship is a complex one. The Jews took a Greek verb χριω equivalent to mem-shin-chet ("anoint") and created an adjective meant to mean "messiah", but to someone outside the Semitic culture it meant "unguent, oil, that which is smeared".

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Originally Posted by Shafeesthoughts View Post
And so at the beginning of the quote Josephus indicates the primary characteristic of a holy man or teacher, and therefore explains that the people who followed that man were Christians.
Josephus was writing to a Roman audience who knew nothing about Semitic traditions other than what Josephus himself explains and he says nothing about the term "χριστος".

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Originally Posted by Shafeesthoughts View Post
Christians as a word is therefore a Greek word for those people.
Actually, no it's not. It's a Latin word, given that Christus was borrowed from Greek into Latin and -ian- is a Latin (not Greek) suffix, so "christian" is a Latin construction. There were plenty of suffixes Greeks could use to do the job -hn- (gadarhnos), -ai- (xettaios), -ith- (ammaniths), but a Latin suffix was what was used. It's a Latin word borrowed by the Greek.

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What were these people called in the original Aramaic tongue?
Nobody can say, but the Peshitta Acts 11:26 has "christian" transliterated into Syriac Aramaic.

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Originally Posted by Shafeesthoughts View Post
Remember that Cyrus the great was also entitled Christ by the then Children of Israel because of his repatriation of them back to Judea, and then permitting them to rebuild the temple.
Well, he was called messiah (anointed) in Isa 45:1, which got later translated into Greek as "χριστος". Doesn't help with "christian".
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Old 04-29-2012, 10:59 AM   #35
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Please, let us NOT be going over the same Debunked arguments from Ehrman.

He does NOT even know the history of Christianity based on his own claims.

The Roman Empire should have been Christianized by Paul, the disciples and the Apostles when Josephus was a TODDLER, in "diapers".

The City of Galilee, where Josephus, the Disciples and Jesus Lived, should have Christians WHILE Josephus was in Galilee and by the time Josepus went to Rome around c 62 CE.

In Acts of the Apostles, it is claimed Paul attempted to Convert Agrippa to Christianity so it is just a LOAD of BS that Christians would be puzzled by Josephus in 93 CE if Judea, Jerusalem, Galilee, Rome, Corinth, the region of Galatia, Thessalonica and other parts of the Roman Empire already had Christians who believed in Jesus Christ.

Ehrman's AD HOC absurdities will be EXPOSED. Ehrman is illogical.
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Old 04-29-2012, 02:34 PM   #36
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Originally Posted by Shafeesthoughts View Post
Hi. First post. Wasnt there a time when Christians were called Nasarene?
There is discussion about whether the term Nasarene or similar stems from Isaiah 11:1 (NASB95) -

Quote:
1 Then a shoot will spring from the stem of Jesse, And a branch from his roots will bear fruit.
In Hebrew, the word for "branch" is netzer, and it has been proposed that Nasarene stems from that -

in the Hebrew idiom it is written thus
Quote:
"There shall come forth a rod out of the root of Jesse and a Nazarene shall grow from his root."

(Jerome, Letter 47:7)
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Old 04-29-2012, 04:46 PM   #37
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From a Muslim perspective Nasarene comes from an incident mentioned in the Qur'an where Jesus (as), known to us as Nabi Isa (as- the honorific "Peace be upon him") says to his disciples (the Hawireoon) "Who will be the helpers of GOD?" lit "Nasr-Ullah" most likely both in Aramaic and Arabic. And the community of believers affirm that.
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Old 04-29-2012, 05:01 PM   #38
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From a Muslim perspective Nasarene comes from an incident mentioned in the Qur'an where Jesus (as), known to us as Nabi Isa (as- the honorific "Peace be upon him") says to his disciples (the Hawireoon) "Who will be the helpers of GOD?" lit "Nasr-Ullah" most likely both in Aramaic and Arabic. And the community of believers affirm that.
They were there.
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Old 04-29-2012, 06:00 PM   #39
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Originally Posted by Steven Carr View Post
Here is the version of Josephus that is considered to be a pared-down 'authentic version'

'At this time there appeared Jesus, a wise man. He was a doer of startling deeds, a teacher of people who receive the truth with pleasure. And he gained a following both among many Jews and among many of Greek origin. When Pilate, because of an accusation made by the leading men among us, condemned him to the cross, those who had loved him previously did not cease to do so. And up until this very day the tribe of Christians, named after him, has not died out.'

Who were the Christians named after again?

They were called Christians because they were named after Jesus?

How did Biblical scholars come up with the idea that this was an authentic version?
I thought there were no authentic versions of Josephus references to the Jesus Christ of the biblical gospels, Acts, and letters???
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Old 04-29-2012, 07:00 PM   #40
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Josephus was writing to a Roman audience who knew nothing about Semitic traditions other than what Josephus himself explains and he says nothing about the term "χριστος".
And his Roman audience would be scratching their heads, "Jesus the so-called smeared one?" Unless that place were ALREADY overrun by Christians. The Greek φῦλον could also mean "swarm."

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Originally Posted by spin View Post
Actually, no it's not. It's a Latin word, given that Christus was borrowed from Greek into Latin and -ian- is a Latin (not Greek) suffix, so "christian" is a Latin construction. There were plenty of suffixes Greeks could use to do the job -hn- (gadarhnos), -ai- (xettaios), -ith- (ammaniths), but a Latin suffix was what was used. It's a Latin word borrowed by the Greek.

Nobody can say, but the Peshitta Acts 11:26 has "christian" transliterated into Syriac Aramaic.
Almost exactly, I might add.

http://www.peshitta.org/ (for those who don't know Syriac, in left hand menu select: tools, lexicon; in the enter search box type in the english word "christian" and hit "search." You can also use the menu to look up Acts 11:26.)
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