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Old 03-07-2010, 02:03 PM   #31
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Aa,

You repeat yourself a lot.

Is your profession advertising or a Republican PR advisor?

You repeat yourself a lot.

Repeat it enough times and people will start to believe it.

You repeat yourself a lot.

Repeat it enough times and people will start to believe it.

You repeat yourself a lot.

DCH

Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
The Pauline writings are Anachronistic.

...

The Pauline writings are Anachronistic.

...

The Pauline writings are Anachronistic.

etc
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Old 03-07-2010, 05:29 PM   #32
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The Pauline writings are anachronistic.

When one examines the NT and the Church writings it is very clear that the Church have presented bogus information about the chronology, authorship and dating of books of their Canon in order to create a false history of believers for the GOD/MAN Jesus.

This is found in a writing with the title "Against Marcion", the author will admit that he will use the bogus information about the authorship, dating and chronology to undermine Marcion.

"Against Marcion" 4.4
Quote:
..
We must follow, then, the clue of our discussion, meeting every effort of our opponents with reciprocal vigor.

I say that my Gospel is the true one; Marcion, that his is. I affirm that Marcion's Gospel is adulterated; Marcion, that mine is.

Now what is to settle the point for us, except it be that principle of time, which rules that the authority lies with that which shall be found to be more ancient, and assumes as an elemental truth, that corruption (of doctrine) belongs to the side which shall be convicted of comparative lateness in its origin.

For, inasmuch as error is falsification of truth, it must needs be that truth therefore precede error.

A thing must exist prior to its suffering any casualty, and an object must precede all rivalry to itself...
So it is clear that the bogus information will be used against Marcion.

But, in doing a little research, it has been brought to my attention that the Pauline writings show far less textual variant than the Synoptics indicating that they are later than the Synoptics.

It is expected that a later writing will contain less textual variants than a earlier writing.

Look for a moment at the Babara and Kurt Alland Textual variants Table of Greek New Testament.

See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Novum_Testamentum_Graece

It will be noticed that gMark ,considered the earliest Gospel, has 10.3 variants per page or only about 45.1% variant free verses.

If Acts is taken into consideration as later than gMark it would be noticed that the variants per page decreases to 4.2 and that Acts of the Apostles has 67.3% variant free verses.

Matthew.........1071....... ....642............................59.9%.......... ......................6.8
Mark..............678 verses...306 variant-free-verses..45.1% ................................10.3 variants per page


Acts.............1006............677.............. ................67.3% .................................4.2 Revelations...405..............214................ ..............52.8................................ .....5.1

But when the Pauline Epistles to the Churches are examined it is noticed that there are very few textual variants per page and that the percentage of textual variant free verses have dramatically increased.

The Pastorals considered to be later than the Epistles to the Churches have an almost identical variants per page and percentage of textual variant free verses.

Romans......433 verses......327 variant-free-verses....75.5% ....2.9 variants per page
1 Corinth......437...............331................ ................75.7.......3.5
Galatians.....149 ...............114................................ 76.5.......3.3

1 Timothy....113.................92................. .................81.4......2.9
2 Timothy.....83..................66................ .................79.5.......2.8

But, now look at Epistles that are non-Pauline and considered later than the Pauline Epistles, the variants per page dramatically increases.

James.......108 verses.........66 .........................61.6%........5.6 variants per page
1 Peter.......105.................70................ ...........66.6 ..........5.7

Even the General Epistles give indications that they are earlier than the Pauline writings.

And we take the Gospels as a whole, and do the same for all the writings under the name Paul and the General Epistles, we gst the following.

Gospels................53.5% variant free verses............8.1 variants per page

Pauline Epistles ....74.9.........................................3 .2............

General Epistles......56.9................................ .........4.64..........

The data tends to indicate that writings under the name Paul suffered the least textual variants and this may indicate that these writings were later than the Gospels and the General Epistles. After all Justin Martyr did not account for any writer named Saul or Paul up to the middle of the 2nd century although he accounted for Revelations by John, Simon Magus, Menander, the Valentinians, the Basilidians, Saturnilians and Marcion.

Now, if the Pauline writings were the earliest and did suffer rampant mutilation by Marcion and the heretics how can it be explained that the writings under the name Paul has the highest number of textual free variants?

Because they were later than the Church would have us believe. Marcion did not mutilate the Pauline writings, Marcion's doctrine was derived from Empedocles.

Against All Heresies 7.19
Quote:
...These, then, are the opinions of Marcion, by means of which he made many his dupes, employing the conclusions of Empedocles. And he transferred the philosophy invented by that (ancient speculator) into his own system of thought, and (out of Empedocles) constructed his (own) impious heresy....
The Pauline writings are anachronistic.
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Old 03-07-2010, 06:44 PM   #33
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DCHindley,

Apologists have been repeating published assertions about the HJ for centuries --- none of which have any substance. Repetitions of these unsubstantial assertions have echoed around the planet since the 4th century. aa5874 is simply redressing the balance of trade.


Quote:
Originally Posted by DCHindley View Post
Aa,

You repeat yourself a lot.

Is your profession advertising or a Republican PR advisor?

You repeat yourself a lot.

Repeat it enough times and people will start to believe it.

You repeat yourself a lot.

Repeat it enough times and people will start to believe it.

You repeat yourself a lot.

DCH

Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
The Pauline writings are Anachronistic.

...

The Pauline writings are Anachronistic.

...

The Pauline writings are Anachronistic.

etc
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Old 03-10-2010, 07:29 AM   #34
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The Pauline writings are anachronistic.

It is considered that information found in gMark was written just after or about the Fall of the Temple and the gMark ended initially at Mark 16.8.

And it is the very last verses of the short version that are of interest with respect to the dating of the Pauline writings.

This is found in Mark 16.5-8
Quote:
5 And entering into the sepulchre, they saw a young man sitting on the right side, clothed in a long white garment; and they were affrighted.

6 And he saith unto them, Be not affrighted: Ye seek Jesus of Nazareth, which was crucified: he is risen, he is not here: behold the place where they laid him.

7 But go your way, tell his disciples and Peter that he goeth before you into Galilee: there shall ye see him, as he said unto you.

8 And they went out quickly, and fled from the sepulchre; for they trembled and were amazed: neither said they any thing to any man, for they were afraid.
Now, this ending by the author of gMark makes perfect sense once he was the first to write about the Jesus story.

Before gMark no-one would have known one single thing about the resurrection of any character called Jesus who was crucified and the author of gMark gave the explanation.

The reason why no-one has ever heard about the resurrection of Jesus until now, it is because those who visited the tomb told no-one, they were afraid to tell what they saw and heard at the tomb.

The author of Mark has for the first time revealed the truth of the resurrection to the world.

Now, the short ending of gMark makes no sense at all if the Pauline writer was already preaching all over the Roman Empire, about 30 years before gMark, that Jesus was raised from the dead, that over 500 people saw Jesus in a resurrected state and that if Jesus was not raised from the dead all of mankind would still be in sin.

All the people who should have heard the Pauline writer preach about the resurrection of Jesus should have known that the short-ending of gMark was not really true. The people who visited the tomb must have told at least Paul that Jesus was raised from the dead.

It should have been an open secret, common knowledge, that Jesus was raised from the dead.

How is it that the author of gMark did not realise that the Pauline writer had already told the whole of the Roman Empire that Jesus was raised from the dead?

Because there was no resurrection story before the Jesus stories were written.

And it was after the Pauline writings when the Pauline writer was placed anachronistically about 30 years before the first Jesus stories that it was realised that gMark must be altered to harmonise with the Pauline writings.

From gMark 16.9, a new harmonised end-story was written, Mary Magdalene did tell the disciples as they mourned and wept and then Jesus made his post-resurrection appearance.

The late ending of gMark is harmonised with the Pauline writings.

The Pauline writings are anachronistic.
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Old 03-11-2010, 11:15 PM   #35
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The Pauline writings are anachronistic.

The Canon as it is found cannot support history it can only support belief.

If the Pauline writers were placed in Judea before the Fall of the Temple and it was known that Jesus was just a man then the Pauline writers would have been known to be liars and hypocrites.

Jesus of the NT was promoted as the son of the God of the Jews it would have been virtually impossible for the Pauline writer to have convinced Jews that Jesus was a God within a few years of his crucifixion for blasphemy and asking them to abandon the Laws of God including circumcision.

If it assumed that Jesus died at around 33 CE after being around Galilee for thirty years and did nothing but told people to turn the other cheek, to bless those who cursed them and to be meek, and who cursed the Pharisees what could have made the Pauline writer such a success all over the Empire?

The Pauline history is directly based on fictitious accounts in Acts of the Apostles where thousands of people were converting to belief in Jesus on a daily basis.

Even if belief in Jesus started before the Fall of the Temple it would not have grown by thousands on a daily basis.

The Pauline writings were most likely written after the Fall of the Temple and back-dated to produce a fraudulent history of Jesus believers.
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Old 03-12-2010, 03:39 AM   #36
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Default date of Paul's correspondence....

Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874
The Pauline writings were most likely written after the Fall of the Temple...
May I humbly propose that you change that to an actual date, e.g. 70 CE, versus 115 CE, or 135 CE, to avoid confusion vis a vis the first, second or third conflict between Imperial Rome and Jerusalem. "Fall of the Temple" is jargon, well understood by 99% of the world's biblical scholars, and all shades of Jews, and probably most Muslims, but not understood at all, by those of us, admittedly very ignorant, who lie outside that elite group.

If I wrote, "Warring States Period", or, for that matter, Zhan(4)Guo(2)Shi(2)Dai(4), about a billion people would understand me, but what about the other four billion? For them, I think it is easier if one writes, concretely, 475 BCE-221 BCE.

Quote:
Originally Posted by MountainMan
DCHindley,
Apologists have been repeating published assertions about the HJ for centuries --- none of which have any substance. Repetitions of these unsubstantial assertions have echoed around the planet since the 4th century. aa5874 is simply redressing the balance of trade.
Thank you both. DCHindley is correct, in my opinion, to offer that suggestion to aa5874. I believe that what DC Hindley sought to express, in a kindhearted fashion, was the opinion, undoubtedly shared by several others, that aa's style of presentation, creates a modest barrier, which can interfere with appreciation of his considerable intellectual contribution to the debates on this forum.

Personally, I enjoy reading all of aa's many thoughtful posts, and, since I am quite repetitive myself, I am not put off by his particular style of communication, nevertheless, I appreciate DCHindley's appropriate comment. Pete, thanks for lending your support to aa. Criticism is very helpful, but sometimes, it is also good to read that one's efforts have not been entirely in vain, and I interpret your comment in that vein. Thanks to both of you.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Wiki
These letters are quoted or mentioned by the earliest of sources, and are included in every ancient canon, including that of Marcion (c.140).
Further:

Quote:
Originally Posted by Wiki describing Marcion of Sinope
a bishop of Asia Minor who went to Rome and was later excommunicated for his views,
was the first of record to propose a definitive, exclusive, unique canon of Christian scriptures, compiled sometime between 130-140 CE....
Marcion termed his collection of Pauline epistles the Apostolikon. These also differed from the versions accepted by later Christian Orthodoxy.
Alright, so we have some scholars, Robert M. Price and others, who think that Marcion was the first to collect Paul's letters, though the text of the letters is apparently different from the text we know of today. This collection by Marcion apparently took place about 135CE.

Hmm. 135 CE. Hmm.
(that repetition demonstrates thinking! haha)
So, we have a large scale military operation, leading to destruction of Jerusalem, dispersal of Jews, and appearance of Paul's letters in publication form, for the first time, albeit in a different version, and where is this collection of Marcion? OOPS. Nonexistent. We know of Marcion's text only by reference to criticism of it, written by one of his many opponents, Tertullian.

That would be analogous to relying upon Voltaire's account of Leibniz' philosophy. (Voltaire was a dedicated Newtonian!)

Where's the earliest extant copy of Paul's letters? Papyrus 46, mid third century. I am looking for someone to offer evidence that Paul's letters were not created in 135CE? Why does no one seem to object to Paul's having purloined Menander's dictum from Thais, reprinted baldly, openly, without attribution, in 1 Corinthians? To me, this is not the sort of euphemism I would associate with a Galileean.

avi

avi
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Old 03-12-2010, 09:58 AM   #37
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Quote:
Originally Posted by avi View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874
The Pauline writings were most likely written after the Fall of the Temple...
May I humbly propose that you change that to an actual date, e.g. 70 CE, versus 115 CE, or 135 CE, to avoid confusion vis a vis the first, second or third conflict between Imperial Rome and Jerusalem. "Fall of the Temple" is jargon, well understood by 99% of the world's biblical scholars, and all shades of Jews, and probably most Muslims, but not understood at all, by those of us, admittedly very ignorant, who lie outside that elite group.
But, all three suggested dates are past the supposed death of the Pauline writer which is exactly what I am establishing when I claim that the Pauline writings are anachronistic.

The Fall of the Jewish Temple c. 70 CE is the event that triggered the Jesus God/Man story.

Quote:
Originally Posted by avi
... DCHindley is correct, in my opinion, to offer that suggestion to aa5874. I believe that what DC Hindley sought to express, in a kindhearted fashion, was the opinion, undoubtedly shared by several others, that aa's style of presentation, creates a modest barrier, which can interfere with appreciation of his considerable intellectual contribution to the debates on this forum.
Actually DCHindley is NOT correct. He totally mis-represents my posts by not dealing with the main body or main issues of my posts but the first and last lines.

Now, I do not comment on the writing style of others since such comments are actually irrelevant to the thread. Now, suppose I don't like your writing style what should I do?

Writing style is irrelevant.

Quote:
Originally Posted by avi
Personally, I enjoy reading all of aa's many thoughtful posts, and, since I am quite repetitive myself, I am not put off by his particular style of communication, nevertheless, I appreciate DCHindley's appropriate comment. Pete, thanks for lending your support to aa. Criticism is very helpful, but sometimes, it is also good to read that one's efforts have not been entirely in vain, and I interpret your comment in that vein. Thanks to both of you.
I hope you understand that my position on the Pauline writings have nothing whatsoever to do with repetition of bogus information but on sources of antiquity.

I must not or cannot refrain from repeating what I see or read in the writings of antiquity concerning the Pauline writings.

Quote:
Originally Posted by avi
Alright, so we have some scholars, Robert M. Price and others, who think that Marcion was the first to collect Paul's letters, though the text of the letters is apparently different from the text we know of today. This collection by Marcion apparently took place about 135CE.
Well, based on my research, it would appear that Marcion did not have any Pauline writings. I have found a Church writer that have contradicted Tertullian. Marcion may had the writings of Empedocles.

According to Hyppolytus, Marcion plagerised Empedocles.

This is found in "Against All Heresies" 7
Quote:
When, therefore, Marcion or some one of his hounds barks against the Demiurge, and adduces reasons from a comparison of what is good and bad, we ought to say to them, that neither Paul the apostle nor Mark, he of the maimed finger, announced such (tenets).

For none of these (doctrines) has been written in the Gospel according to Mark. But (the real author of the system) is Empedocles, son of Meto, a native of Agrigentum.

And (Marcion) despoiled this (philosopher), and imagined that up to the present would pass undetected his transference, under the same expressions, of the arrangement of his entire heresy from Sicily into the evangelical narratives.
So, we have again Church writers contradicting each other about events that should be rather clear. The writer called Tertullian claimed Marcion seemed to mutilate gLuke and the Pauline writings. Hyppolytus claimed Marcion did no such thing. Marcion's doctrine was not in the Pauline writings or gMark it was from Empedocles.

And it is known that the doctrine of Dualism, Marcion's doctrine, is not in the Canon. Hippolytus seems to be right.

Quote:
Originally Posted by avi
Hmm. 135 CE. Hmm.
(that repetition demonstrates thinking! haha)
So, we have a large scale military operation, leading to destruction of Jerusalem, dispersal of Jews, and appearance of Paul's letters in publication form, for the first time, albeit in a different version, and where is this collection of Marcion? OOPS. Nonexistent. We know of Marcion's text only by reference to criticism of it, written by one of his many opponents, Tertullian.
As I have found, it was not only the writer called Tertullian that wrote about Marcion. There is Hippolytus and Justin Martyr. These two writers seem to contradict Tertullian.

It would seem more realistic that Marcion used some previous doctrine of Dualism rather than to mutilate the Pauline writings and the Gospels which were supposed to be in existence perhaps up to a hundred years before Marcion and was known in the Churches all over the Roman Empire to have nothing whatsoever to do with Dualism.

Once a Pauline writer physically preached a doctrine of non-Dualism for about thirty years and was executed while preaching non-Dualism, and had Epistles with non-Dualistic doctrine, then it makes no sense at all for Marcion to use the Pauline writings to advocate Dualism when he could have just used the Dualistic doctrine of Empedocles.

Quote:
Originally Posted by avi
Where's the earliest extant copy of Paul's letters? Papyrus 46, mid third century. I am looking for someone to offer evidence that Paul's letters were not created in 135CE? Why does no one seem to object to Paul's having purloined Menander's dictum from Thais, reprinted baldly, openly, without attribution, in 1 Corinthians? To me, this is not the sort of euphemism I would associate with a Galileean.
My observation is that the Church writers have developped a pattern where they have placed writings of the Canon earlier than they should have.

If we isolate the Pauline Epistles to the Churches, then virtually all the other writings of the Canon have been erroneously or deliberately placed earlier than they should have been, the authorship is wrong and the chronology are also out of synch.

The Church placed virtually all the writings of the Canon, except perhaps Revelation and gJohn's Epistles before the Fall of the Temple, but they also claimed the Pauline writer was aware of gLuke and that the Pauline writer died before the Fall of the Temple..

Now, gLuke appear to have been written after the Fall of the Temple.

So, the Pauline writer therefore must have been aware of or very likely to be aware of the Fall of the Temple and the perceived significance of the Fall of the Temple, that God have abandoned the Jews.

Well, Romans 11 will confirm that the Pauline writer was aware of the Fall of the Temple and of it's percieved significance with respect to God and the Jews.

Romans 11.19-22
Quote:
19 Thou wilt say then, The branches were broken off, that I might be graffed in.

20 Well; because of unbelief they were broken off, and thou standest by faith. Be not highminded, but fear:

21 For if God spared not the natural branches, take heed lest he also spare not thee.

22 Behold therefore the goodness and severity of God: on them which fell, severity; but toward thee, goodness, if thou continue in his goodness: otherwise thou also shalt be cut off.

23 And they also, if they abide not still in unbelief, shall be graffed in: for God is able to graff them in again.
Romans 11.19-23 has clearly shown that the Pauline writer was aware that "SEVERITY" fell on the Jews and the Jewish "branch was broken off". These events did not occur between 15th year of Tiberius up to the death of the supposed Pauline writer just before the death of Nero.

When did God not spare the natural branches?

Severity fell on the Jews, their "branch was broken off" when the Jewish Temple Fell and Jerusalem was made desolate.

Now once the Jewish Temple has fallen, Jerusalem is destroyed and the Jews demoralised, then the Pauline writings make a lot of sense. They fit perfectly after the Fall of the Temple, after 70 CE.

The Pauline writer is simply offering an alternate mode of salvation and it does not involve any more Temple sacrifice, (there is no Temple), just faith in Jesus Christ the Lord and Saviour.

The Pauline writings are anachronistic.
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Old 03-13-2010, 05:42 AM   #38
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Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
Jesus of the NT was promoted as the son of the God of the Jews it would have been virtually impossible for the Pauline writer to have convinced Jews that Jesus was a God within a few years of his crucifixion for blasphemy and asking them to abandon the Laws of God including circumcision.
It probably would have been impossible for Paul to do that because he didn't actually believe that "Jesus was a God". And secondly he wasn't trying to get them to abandon the laws of God, he was merely saying that the gentiles needn't abide by them (it was they whom he was evangelizing to, according to his own accounts - not the Jews themselves) and that the law was rendered moot by Jesus' death and resurrection anyway.

Quote:
If it assumed that Jesus died at around 33 CE after being around Galilee for thirty years and did nothing but told people to turn the other cheek, to bless those who cursed them and to be meek, and who cursed the Pharisees what could have made the Pauline writer such a success all over the Empire?
He also preached an inversionary ethical eschatology that attracted many who had been left disenfranchised by the Romans' increasingly stringent tax requirements and other social forces. In any case, someone had to be " a success all over the Empire" to get Christianity to catch on to the extent it did, didn't they? Why not go with the most parsimonious explanation and suggest that person was Paul?

Quote:
The Pauline history is directly based on fictitious accounts in Acts of the Apostles where thousands of people were converting to belief in Jesus on a daily basis.

Even if belief in Jesus started before the Fall of the Temple it would not have grown by thousands on a daily basis.
The Book of Acts is of dubious historicity: this isn't news. I'm not sure how this impacts on the historicity of Paul and his surviving letters, though.

Quote:
Well, Romans 11 will confirm that the Pauline writer was aware of the Fall of the Temple and of it's percieved significance with respect to God and the Jews.

Romans 11.19-22
Quote:
19 Thou wilt say then, The branches were broken off, that I might be graffed in.

20 Well; because of unbelief they were broken off, and thou standest by faith. Be not highminded, but fear:

21 For if God spared not the natural branches, take heed lest he also spare not thee.

22 Behold therefore the goodness and severity of God: on them which fell, severity; but toward thee, goodness, if thou continue in his goodness: otherwise thou also shalt be cut off.

23 And they also, if they abide not still in unbelief, shall be graffed in: for God is able to graff them in again.
Romans 11.19-23 has clearly shown that the Pauline writer was aware that "SEVERITY" fell on the Jews and the Jewish "branch was broken off". These events did not occur between 15th year of Tiberius up to the death of the supposed Pauline writer just before the death of Nero.

When did God not spare the natural branches?

Severity fell on the Jews, their "branch was broken off" when the Jewish Temple Fell and Jerusalem was made desolate.
Where are you getting that interpretation from? It's an allusion to gentiles taking the place of those Jews on the olive branch (i.e. Israel - God's chosen people) who were "broken off because of their unbelief [in Jesus Christ]". It's a warning for them not be be complacent and to show due respect for the "roots" (i.e. Judaism) onto which they have been grafted.

The passage makes no sense if we take it as a metaphor for the fall of the Temple. What "branches" have been "broken off" as a consequence of "unbelief"? Jerusalem? The priesthood? Surely not Judaism itself (which, for the metaphor to hold, would require an uprooting of the entire tree)? Does the text demand such an interpretation, or do you only find yourself led there because you're deafened by Paul's silence concerning the temple destruction throughout the rest of his epistles?
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Old 03-13-2010, 09:45 AM   #39
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Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
Jesus of the NT was promoted as the son of the God of the Jews it would have been virtually impossible for the Pauline writer to have convinced Jews that Jesus was a God within a few years of his crucifixion for blasphemy and asking them to abandon the Laws of God including circumcision.
It probably would have been impossible for Paul to do that because he didn't actually believe that "Jesus was a God". And secondly he wasn't trying to get them to abandon the laws of God, he was merely saying that the gentiles needn't abide by them (it was they whom he was evangelizing to, according to his own accounts - not the Jews themselves) and that the law was rendered moot by Jesus' death and resurrection anyway.
The Canonical NT is about the offspring of the Holy Ghost, the son of God, born without a human father. The Pauline writings are part of the Canon. It is just patently absurd and unreasonable to even suggest that the Pauline writer did not propagate that Jesus was a God.


Romans 1.1-4
Quote:
1 Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ, called to be an apostle, separated unto the gospel of God, 2 (Which he had promised afore by his prophets in the holy scriptures,)

3 Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh;

4 And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead:
2Co 1:19 -
Quote:
For the Son of God, Jesus Christ, who was preached among you by us, even by me and Silvanus and Timotheus, was not yea and nay, but in him was yea.
Galatians1 .1
Quote:
Paul an apostle, ( ot of men, neither by man but by Jesus Christ and God the Father who raised him from the dead.)
Quote:
Originally Posted by JP2
He also preached an inversionary ethical eschatology that attracted many who had been left disenfranchised by the Romans' increasingly stringent tax requirements and other social forces. In any case, someone had to be " a success all over the Empire" to get Christianity to catch on to the extent it did, didn't they? Why not go with the most parsimonious explanation and suggest that person was Paul?
But, the Pauline writer himself will contradict you. The Pauline writer in all of the writings did not record a single NEGATIVE WORD about a single Emperor of Rome.

The Pauline writer did not write to the Gentiles about the Jews who did not deify the Roman Emperors and did not even make mention of their admirable and courageous stance against these SUPER-HUMANS called Emperors.

The Pauline writer did not tell the Gentiles that the Romans had disenfranchised the Jews with stringent tax requirements and that the Romans were constantly attempting to place effigies or statues of their Gods at Jewish place of worship.

The Pauline writer wrote nothing to help the disenfranchised Jews.

Paul was against the powerless and the disenfranchised. His words are recorded

Romans 13:1-2 -
Quote:
1 Let every soul be subject unto the higher powers. For there is no power but of God: the powers that be are ordained F53 of God.

2 Whosoever therefore resisteth the power, resisteth the ordinance of God: and they that resist shall receive to themselves damnation.
The Pauline writer has contradicted you. He has sided with the Roman Power.

The disenfranchised be damned.

Quote:
Originally Posted by JP2
The Book of Acts is of dubious historicity: this isn't news. I'm not sure how this impacts on the historicity of Paul and his surviving letters, though.
Well, if you are not sure about the only source of Pauline history, then the history of the Pauline writer must be dubious. We have a calamity with respect to the history of the Pauline writer.

1. His history is dubious.

2. The authorship of the writings under the name Paul are dubious.

How much worse can it get?

Well, the Church writers claimed the Pauline writer was aware of gLuke and the Pauline writer died before the Fall of the Temple under Nero.

It has gotten worse. Real real bad.

It has been deduced that gLuke was written after the Fall of the Temple.

You can forget about an early Paul.

Quote:
Originally Posted by JP2
Where are you getting that interpretation from? It's an allusion to gentiles taking the place of those Jews on the olive branch (i.e. Israel - God's chosen people) who were "broken off because of their unbelief [in Jesus Christ]". It's a warning for them not be be complacent and to show due respect for the "roots" (i.e. Judaism) onto which they have been grafted.
Between the time Jesus was supposedly on earth, there are no historical source that can show that Jews thought they were broken off from God because of unbelief in any character called Jesus the Messiah.

It was after the Fall of the Temple and the destruction of Jerusalem that it was believed that the Jews may have been abandoned by God based on so-called prophecies in Hebrew Scripture.

Quote:
Originally Posted by JP2
The passage makes no sense if we take it as a metaphor for the fall of the Temple. What "branches" have been "broken off" as a consequence of "unbelief"? Jerusalem? The priesthood? Surely not Judaism itself (which, for the metaphor to hold, would require an uprooting of the entire tree)? Does the text demand such an interpretation, or do you only find yourself led there because you're deafened by Paul's silence concerning the temple destruction throughout the rest of his epistles?
Of course when the Temple fell and Jerusalem was destroyed it was as if the Jews had been broken off from God as found in so-called prophecies in Hebrew Scripture.

You MUST have noticed that the Pauline writer used the past tense and not the future tense.

He claimed Severity FELL [not shall fall] on the Jews.

Jeremiah 22.5
Quote:
But, if you will not hear these words, I swear by myself, saith the Lord, that this house shall be made desolate.
Severity FELL on the Jews around 70 CE.

The Pauline writer lived after "SEVERITY FELL" on the Jews.

The Pauline writings are anachronistic.
aa5874 is offline  
Old 03-13-2010, 10:41 PM   #40
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Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
The Pauline writings are anachronistic.

The Canon as it is found cannot support history it can only support belief.

If the Pauline writers were placed in Judea before the Fall of the Temple and it was known that Jesus was just a man then the Pauline writers would have been known to be liars and hypocrites.

Jesus of the NT was promoted as the son of the God of the Jews it would have been virtually impossible for the Pauline writer to have convinced Jews that Jesus was a God within a few years of his crucifixion for blasphemy and asking them to abandon the Laws of God including circumcision.

If it assumed that Jesus died at around 33 CE after being around Galilee for thirty years and did nothing but told people to turn the other cheek, to bless those who cursed them and to be meek, and who cursed the Pharisees what could have made the Pauline writer such a success all over the Empire?

The Pauline history is directly based on fictitious accounts in Acts of the Apostles where thousands of people were converting to belief in Jesus on a daily basis.

Even if belief in Jesus started before the Fall of the Temple it would not have grown by thousands on a daily basis.

The Pauline writings were most likely written after the Fall of the Temple and back-dated to produce a fraudulent history of Jesus believers.
That's a very interesting theory that could very well be the truth.
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