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Old 04-25-2007, 04:50 PM   #181
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Originally Posted by jess View Post
That's what I said!

Lars, I want to give you a heads up--- Archaeologists *can* prove that walls once existed and were carted away for use in other places...

they *can*. Really.

Thanks, great.

LG47
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Old 04-25-2007, 06:58 PM   #182
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Originally Posted by jess View Post
That's what I said!

Lars, I want to give you a heads up--- Archaeologists *can* prove that walls once existed and were carted away for use in other places...

they *can*. Really.
Think Hex mentioned it, too. Maybe if we all say it enough, it'll sink in.....let's not hold our breaths though. :banghead:

http://www.varchive.org/ce/jericho.htm
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After the great fortress, its palace and its walls ruined and burned, there was no Jericho again. The near-absence of Late Bronze remains is explained by an extraordinary amount of weathering on the site. “The houses of Late Bronze Age Jericho have therefore almost entirely disappeared.”(12) Only in one small area were foundations of Late Bronze Age houses discovered. When Garstang excavated the site, he found also “traces of the several houses which sprang up independently of the fortifications upon the ruins of the city at its northern end.” (13) The time of this settlement was near the end of the eighteenth dynasty in Egypt, the days of Amenhotep III or Amenhotep IV (Akhnaton).
The small late bronze age settlement wasn't even within the old walled area. Garstang got some things wrong, but I'll accept that he can tell if something is on top of another site, or not.
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There was found a Jericho of the days of the Early Bronze—the Old Kingdom in Egypt. Its defenses were destroyed, and immediately and in great haste the people of Jericho built again, but their hastily-erected wall was destroyed by fire before having been completed. As to the causes of these destructions, Miss Kenyon expresses herself this way: “Earthquakes undoubtedly played their part. Owing to the cataclysmic terrestrial upheavals which resulted in the formation of this great cleft, the Jordan Valley is peculiarly liable to earthquakes.” (6)
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But of any fortifications that the Late Bronze Age settlement might have had, no trace survives. Garstang thought to have found them in the excavations that he conducted on the site between 1930 and 1936; but the double line of wall, thought by Garstang to be of the Late Bronze age, or New Kingdom in Egypt, was proved to date from the Early Bronze, contemporary with the Old Kingdom in Egypt. Garstang’s conclusion of a sizable fortress in the days of Amenhotep III was shown to be wrong. Very few traces were found above the destruction level of the Middle Bronze Age city, which, in accordance with the statement cited above, “is the highest surviving layer.”
http://www.library.cornell.edu/colld...st/jerques.htm
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Repeated excavations by various expeditions at Jericho and Ai, the two cities whose conquest is described in the greatest detail in the Book of Joshua, have proved very disappointing. Despite the excavators' efforts, it emerged that in the late part of the 13th century BCE, at the end of the Late Bronze Age, which is the agreed period for the conquest, there were no cities in either tell, and of course no walls that could have been toppled.
"no cities" = only small settlements. "no walls" = NO WALLS.

http://www.diggingsonline.com/pages/...na1/samp65.htm
Quote:
But then came Dr Kathleen Kenyon, who claimed that Garstang had wrongly identified these walls. She excavated from 1952 to 1956 and wrote, "We have nowhere been able to prove the survival of walls of the Late Bronze Age, that is to say, of the period of Joshua. This is at variance with Professor's Garstang's conclusions. He ascribed two of the lines of walls which encircle the summit to the Late Bronze Age, but everywhere that we examined them it was clear that they must belong to the Early Bronze Age and have been buried beneath a massive scarp belonging to the Middle Bronze Age." Digging Up jericho, p.46

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Old 04-25-2007, 09:52 PM   #183
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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Of course you have no intention of rebutting this, because you CAN'T!
Like I can't tear apart your dumb crap about the Tel Rehov C14 which you resolutely refuse to understand, appealing to the distribution of found objects indicated by "relative probability" and ignoring the probability given as 1-sigma and 2-sigma.

All along forgetting that the C14 data refers only to the date of the cutting of the carbon-based life-form and doesn't in itself represent the data of events. This means that from the time of the death of the life-form to the destruction there is usually a gap of some years, time to shape, time to install and them arbitrary time after that when the destruction took place.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
So run away from the argument.
I don't need to run, when you have no argument. You bring no coherence to your mess. You avoid responding meaningfully to others or checking references. I doubt whether you have checked one scholarly reference presented to you.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
That's one way to do it.
It sure is. You ignore anything that comes your way. The cutest tack is to put off dealing with it for a while and then, forgetting that others have trashed the idea, reintroduce it to the discourse.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Let's see what YOUR opinion is about LINE 18 of the VAT4956.
Not until I see you do the effort to face the epigraphic evidence for Persian chronology rather than putting it off with silly excuse scenarios such as...
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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
If Xerxes was claiming for the sake of avoiding a war that he was Artaxerxes and the Persians decided to change their history and add 30 years to the rule of Darius I in order to have better compatibility with the ages, then EVERYTHING EPIGRAPHIC with a 36-year reference is on the table for challenging. That's why I look directly at the bas-reliefs of PERSEPOLIS. There we noted that Darius I started a palace and could barely finish it.
What's your evidence for how much he built and how long it took to build it??

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
We notice at Behistune he only talks about the first 3-4 years of his rule?
Behistun was close to the start of his reign.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Where's all the big events for the rest of his rule?
He didn't need to justify himself once the reign blossomed. There is sufficient epigraphy elsewhere, such as in the archives of Jewish merchants.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Please keep the excuses coming!
You're doing such a good job without me.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
And at Naqshi-Rustam, Artaxerxes (Xerxes) is buried where he is supposed to be, between Darius I and Darius II! Why is "Xerxes" buried in a newer tomb than Artaxerxes? Please ignore all this though.
This is ironic: other people than you ignore?

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
I know if it doesn't jump up and bite you, then "it's not real." In the meantime, the Biblical record limits his rule to just six years. So it's Bible history vs Persian history. Let's get into it.
Do Archaeology 101.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
PLUTARCH addresses this issue of Themistocle fleeing to Persia at the critical time of when Xerxes died and Artaxerxes allegedly comes to the throne. But they never did figure out which king he went to. Interestingly, the account of the actual interview before the King of Persia by Themistocles was to XERXES, not Artaxerxes! Now why do you think that is?
So far it sounds like you fantasizing. Would you care to specify the sources and what your logic and real conclusion from the evidence is?

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Bottom line, Spin, you're going to have to DISMISS one historical reference or the other.
Like you dismiss every piece of epigraphic evidence???

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
The Bible or one or more secular references and make a choice for which you think is the best. I'm basically here to show you where the discrepancies are.
Rubbish. You're here to do what you do. Crap on a forum with unprocessed crud.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Where Ktesias claims Cyrus was the son-in-law of Cambyses and where Herodotus claims he was his grandson, etc. Classic "red flag" for revisionism for the rule of Cyrus.
Go with Ctesias: Herodotus was not necessarily too good with Mesopotamian issues and Ctesias spent time in the Persian court. What is the exact reference in Herodotus, by the way?

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Did you know that Herodotus claims there was an eclipse in the spring the year Xerxes invaded Greece? After the original revisions, the timeline was back in sync by the time of Xerxes' invasion in 424BCE, an Olympics year. And there was also an eclipse in the spring that year. Where's that eclipse in 480 BCE?


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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
When Xenophon made his revisions...
No evidence means fantasy. Either you try to make the claim that Xenophon revised Thucydides or you give it up as a dishonest ploy.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
...he pushed the history back 56 years and the year of the invasion along with it from 424BCE back to 480BCE. Problem is, no eclipse in the spring to date this event.
You know what they have calculated, you've frequented those sites so why are you misrepresenting the evidence?

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
So, sorry, it's going to be a tossup here, and the VAT4956 will do no matter.
Stick your head n the sand like a true ostrich. Manipulate your evidence so it is in conflict and forget about what it conflicts with.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Once you get past the misrepresentations by the "experts"
Such as you. You've been parading not as an expert but an "expert", who doesn't even use serious sources. Did you get your much of stuff out of a Watchtower publication?

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
then it becomes clear the text was designed to hide in a safe place some references to the rule of Nebuchadnezzar whose 37th year fell in 511BCE.
Number twiddling got you into this mess in the first place. You started by ignoring what astronomers who make a living working with astronomy have already done and revising it, regardless of what they had done.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
BUT YOU WON'T FACE THAT,
About the most constructive thing you've done here is use someone else's comment. How novel.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
running from that discussion.
Running? Another novel word in this context, with all its irony. Let's forget about evidence such as epigraphy. Let's reinvent the wheel -- and make it square because it looks so cool and never mind the fact that it doesn't work.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
You can only claim this is baseless, has been disproven before and you don't have time to go over this again, you have better and more important things to do. Classic COP-OUT and eyes-closed so you don't have to face reality. As they say, "ignornance is bliss"--I guess that's the appeal!
"[I]gnornance" certainly is bliss.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
I told you I didn't invent that reference about Aristotle and Phaedo and you can't disprove they weren't lovers.
I never said you did. You just spread the crap around.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
All the men back then were sleeping with young boys, so it's not rubbish.
That's really logical and relevant.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
I couldn't find a bust of "Phaedo" but I found lots of Aristotle.
That's really logical and relevant.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
That source might be misleading or erroneous. Maybe not.
Except that Aristotle wasn't born at the time.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
If Aristotle doesn't turn out to be the lover of Socrates, then fine. But I haven't been able to effective disprove it.
You haven't been trying. It appeals to your gonads.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
The TEL REHOV chart speaks for itself. It clearly shows you which dates have the greatest "relative probability". You can ignore that if you want to. I'm not the one in denial. You didn't win that argument.
Of course you're for denial. You've been in denial since many people have shown you haven't got a clue what the data represents.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
As far as the KTU 1.78 is concerned, that text had already been dated to 1375BCE by FR Stephenson, which falls during the conventional time for the Amarna Period.
I have cited other more recent studies, which you typically ignore ignore ignore ignore. If it's not denial, you need to give a better word for this willfulness.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Rohl had assigned it to year 12 of Akhenaten
I don't give a hoot for what Rohl did. He has little connection with reality. He chops a leg off a stool and wonders why it won't stand up and out of desperation he attempts to chop another leg off, but it won't cut.

Depending on Rohl is like depending on a straw while you're drowning.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
so I just noted if that were applied to 1375BCE then the 1st of Akhenaten would fall in 1386BCE and that is still within the range given for the fall of Jericho by Kenyon,
There was no fall of Jericho. The walls are intact. You can go and look at them. They've been uncovered near the main gate of the town (1998). Try as hard as you can to find those walls came tumbling down. :wave:

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
that is Jericho would fall in 1346BCE and Kenyon dates that fall by the Israelites between 1350-1325BCE. It's just an observation of the FACTS. If you don't want to assign that reference to Akhenaten, you don't have to. But I'm not the only one doing it.
Guilty by association.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
As far as Syncellus and Manetho goes, if you want to rewrite the entire Egyptian timeline, be my guest!
Modern historical analysis of Egyptian chronology has nothing to do with either Manetho or Syncellus. Why don't you get up to date?

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
I'm just noting what the reference is and how it would play out in the timeline. I'm not saying it is absolutely correct.
Hey, that's great.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
So in all, you've just objected to everything where there is nothing to object to.
Yes, we know how your denial works.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Oh well! Finally some responsibility here!
Perhaps it's time you learnt a bit.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
You should study it thoroughly! And yes I have read both the translation and transliteration and I have sent a SUGGESTED CORRECTIONS of what I've found to the original translator (and misrepresenter), Herman Hunger.
Do you honestly think that Hunger wouldn't get a laugh out of this "no, no, it's not what you said, it's what I say" stuff? Where is the evidence for rewriting Hunger's analysis in that letter?? Please do send it to Hunger.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
I reported the error made by Sachs/Hunger to the British Museum and they said they were going to round up Hunger and Stephenson and others and get them to review all the astronomy now that we have precise computerized astronomy programs, but I haven't followed up on that recently.


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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
They sort of remind me of my old days in the Watchtower organization growing up.
You sort of remind me of the old days when the Watchtower organization would come to one's door with crackpot signs and wonders. But then everyone was into signs and wonders. Remember the World Tomorrow?

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
One time I found an error and reported it to them; they wrote me back and told me just to "correct your personal copy" and they never printed a correction.
Have you got a photocopy of their response?

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Same with British Museum who told me rather flippantly, "He who writes no books, makes no errors." I'm not a big fan of the British Museum, needless to say, and neither are some others who have had direct interaction with them.
I'd recommend that you publish your findings in a peer review journal.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
SO, by all means find out AS MUCH as you can about the VAT4956. It's a fascinating text. If you have any questions, then let me know.
Why? How could you help me?

:wave:

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Oh, you forgot! My claim that the 763BCE eclipse is misdated since normally June 15 would fall in month 2. Don't forget that. Of course, lots of people already know that, right? Yet one more thing I'm just soooo completely wrong about, something else everybody else has good sense enough to ignore and sweep under the carpet. Why can't I do the same?
I must admit one of the things you ignored a while ago is that if you redate the 431BCE eclipse to nearly 30 years later, you suddenly don't have an eclipse for the beginning of spring seven years later.


spin
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Old 04-25-2007, 11:34 PM   #184
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Thanks for your reply spin, I appreciate it. Hope you don't mind my breaking this up into a couple of sub-categories:

[QUOTE]
Quote:
Originally Posted by spin View Post
Like I can't tear apart your dumb crap about the Tel Rehov C14 which you resolutely refuse to understand, appealing to the distribution of found objects indicated by "relative probability" and ignoring the probability given as 1-sigma and 2-sigma.
Again, the chart speaks for itself, assigns different values to different years in a scale from 0.0 to 1.0 labeled "relative probability." 925BCE is about 0.05 and 874-867BCE on that scale appear at around .098+. Whatever that means. It doesn't nullify the other references.

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All along forgetting that the C14 data refers only to the date of the cutting of the carbon-based life-form and doesn't in itself represent the data of events.
Which proves you're totally out of touch with what this is all about. The excitement here for the RC14 dating is entirely focussed on "short-lived" grains and cereals for the very reason these things are considered "contemporary" with that level, say moreso than timber found burned that might have been already several decades old before use. In the case of a destructive level where grains are found, however, it is particularly considered to be very close to the true date of the event, since the presumption is that the grains may have been harvested the previous season. So all that is considered, certainly. That's why short-lived grains are the focus in the first place.

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This means that from the time of the death of the life-form to the destruction there is usually a gap of some years, time to shape, time to install and them arbitrary time after that when the destruction took place.
Yes. You do have to factor in that error margin. But since cereals were harvested annually, grains burned in a fire at a destructive level are considered to be within a year or less, potentially, of that event. So no one here, particularly me, has missed that.

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I don't need to run, when you have no argument. You bring no coherence to your mess. You avoid responding meaningfully to others or checking references. I doubt whether you have checked one scholarly reference presented to you.
More excluses for not addressing the issue and simply establishing a contradictory argument. If I have "no argument" then state your case. If I say, "Oh, um, there's a reference by Syncellus that Joseph became vizier in the 17th of Apophis", your simply saying, "That's a ridiculous assertion, you have no argument! This is too stupid for me to address" doesn't count as a rebuttal. You have to say something like: "There is no such statement in the original works of Syncellus, that was added in later times..." or something. Simply talking "about" my assertions is not enough.


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It sure is. You ignore anything that comes your way. The cutest tack is to put off dealing with it for a while and then, forgetting that others have trashed the idea, reintroduce it to the discourse.
Point, again is, WHY AREN'T YOU DOING IT NOW? It's a debate "trick" to claim you've won an argument in the past so you don't have to win it now. It's just a clean exit and excuse. You give details otherwise for my assertions, why not now? You're excusing yourself conveniently when you should simply engage in the debate and give your specific side of the argument. When I have credibly challenged some writers for what they did and it was clear they would lose the argument to me, they always get "really busy" and refuse to discuss things with me, claiming I'm unreasonable or that they already won the point int he ancient past and don't want to reassert those argumets again. It's just an escape tactic.


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Not until I see you do the effort to face the epigraphic evidence for Persian chronology rather than putting it off with silly excuse scenarios such as...
GREAT! Show me the epigraphic evidence, the specific epigraphic evidence, and we'll go from there. Show me the epigraphic evidence that says Darius ruled for 36 years. We'll find some of these references and examine where they came from. You know, some might just be a quote from another one, etc. so we need to look at each one, try and locate the SOURCE of the epigraphic reference, then I'll comment on it. So give me the reference.

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What's your evidence for how much he built and how long it took to build it??
BEHISTUN only talks about the first 3-4 years of the rule of Darius. Written in three languages on a sheer cliff. Not a peep after that. So Behistun does not support a 36-year rule, only a 4-year rule.

PERSEPOLIS: Darius began that city in his 4th year and though starting several buildings only completed his palace, possibly one other building, leaving the rest to be finished by Xerxes. This suggests that Pesepolis was "under construction" and still incomplete over a 32-year period. There are only 11 major buildings here. A double wall around Jerusalem using less people only took 16 years. The temple there only took 22 years to build with a 2-year interruption. Normally other palaces built were completed in just 2 years. Further, Artaxerxes finishes some works started by Darius-Xerxes (i.e. the Throne Hall), meaning if that building was begun at the time times the others were started in the 4th of Darius then not only did it remain unfinished during the entire rule of Darius for the next 32 years, but it also remained unfinished for the next 21 years for the rule of Xerxes, meaning it was under contruction for over 51 years. The other side of that scenario is that these buildings really didn't take that long to build, but simply that Darius died in his sixth year, 2-3 years after starting the city, Xerxes finished most of the buildings under "Xerxes" but having adopted the new throne name of "Artaxerxes" happened to finish the Throne Hall under his new name. Further, it is clear that Artaxerxes has the same staff as "Xerxes" when he was co-ruling with Darius.

Be
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histun was close to the start of his reign.
Yes. And why didn't he continue to document major events during the rest of his long, 36-year rule? Why stop documenting? That's the question. But under the question that he actually died shortly afterwards, that explains it.

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He didn't need to justify himself once the reign blossomed. There is sufficient epigraphy elsewhere, such as in the archives of Jewish merchants.
Yes, I've heard that excuse before. I'm not saying it's not a legitimate explanation, there are lots of reasonably good reasons why a chicken crosses the street. But since he was so interested in documenting what happened and making sure it was written in three languages to make sure there was no revisionism, it seems that he might have wanted to document events during the rest of his reign, that's all. Had he done so, it would have been a very strong argument for establishing his reign past his 4th year. So of note, in this argument where the Bible says he died in his sixth year, Behistun doesn't contradict that, only establishing the first 4 years of his rule, etc. Sure there are LOTS of reasons why he didn't get around to documenting anything else for the rest of his rule, even near death?

LG47
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Old 04-25-2007, 11:45 PM   #185
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THEMISTOCLES FLIGHT:

Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47
PLUTARCH addresses this issue of Themistocle fleeing to Persia at the critical time of when Xerxes died and Artaxerxes allegedly comes to the throne. But they never did figure out which king he went to. Interestingly, the account of the actual interview before the King of Persia by Themistocles was to XERXES, not Artaxerxes! Now why do you think that is?
So far it sounds like you fantasizing. Would you care to specify the sources and what your logic and real conclusion from the evidence is?
Here's everything from Plutarch. Plutarch notes that it was always a debate to whom Themistocles fled. But the actual historical interview he records is with Xerxes. Here it is, let me know what you think:

FROM, PLUTARCH, LIVES, THEMISTOCLES:


"Thucydides and Charon of Lampsacus say that Xerxes was dead, and that Themistocles had an interview with his son; but Ephorus, Dinon, Clitarchus, Heraclides, and many others, write that he came to Xerxes. The chronological tables better agree with the account of Thucydides, and yet neither can their statements be said to be quite set at rest.

"When Themistocles was come to the critical point, he applied himself first to Artabanus, commander of a thousand men, telling him that he was a Greek, and desired to speak with the king about important affairs concerning which the king was extremely solicitous. Artabanus answered him, "O stranger, the laws of men are different, and one thing is honorable to one man, and to others another; but it is honorable for all to honor and observe their own laws. It is the habit of the Greeks, we are told, to honor, above all things, liberty and equality; but amongst our many excellent laws, we account this the most excellent, to honor the king, and to worship him, as the image of the great preserver of the universe; if, then, you shall consent to our laws, and fall down before the king and worship him, you may both see him and speak to him; but if your mind be otherwise, you must make use of others to intercede for you, for it is not the national custom here for the king to give audience to any one that doth not fall down before him." Themistocles, hearing this, replied, "Artabanus, I that come hither to increase the power and glory of the king, will not only submit myself to his laws, since so it hath pleased the god who exalteth the Persian empire to this greatness, but will also cause many more to be worshippers and adorers of the king. Let not this, therefore, be an impediment why I should not communicate to the king what I have to impart." Artabanus asking him, "Who must we tell him that you are? for your words signify you to be no ordinary person," Themistocles answered, "No man, O Artabanus, must be informed of this before the king himself." Thus Phanias relates; to which Eratosthenes, in his treatise on Riches, adds, that it was by the means of a woman of Eretria, who was kept by Artabanus, that he obtained this audience and interview with him.

"When he was introduced to the king, and had paid his reverence to him, he stood silent, till the king commanding the interpreter to ask him who he was, he replied, "O king, I am Themistocles the Athenian, driven into banishment by the Greeks. The evils that I have done to the Persians are numerous; but my benefits to them yet greater, in withholding the Greeks from pursuit, so soon as the deliverance of my own country allowed me to show kindness also to you. I come with a mind suited to my present calamities; prepared alike for favors and for anger; to welcome your gracious reconciliation, and to deprecate your wrath. Take my own countrymen for witnesses of the services I have done for Persia, and make use of this occasion to show the world your virtue, rather than to satisfy your indignation. If you save me, you will save your suppliant; if otherwise, will destroy an enemy of the Greeks." He talked also of divine admonition, such as the vision which he saw at Nicogenes` house, and the direction given him by the oracle of Dodona, where Jupiter commanded him to go to him that had a name like his, by which he understood that he was sent from Jupiter to him, seeing that they both were great, and had the name of kings.

"The king heard him attentively, and, though he admired his temper and courage, gave him no answer at that time; but, when he was with his intimate friends, rejoiced in his great good fortune, and esteemed himself very happy in this, and prayed to his god Arimanius, that all his enemies might be ever of the same mind with the Greeks, to abuse and expel the bravest men amongst them. Then he sacrificed to the gods, and presently fell to drinking, and was so well pleased, that in the night, in the middle of his sleep, he cried out for joy three times, "I have Themistocles the Athenian."


Please make your own comment here. But the context from the Biblical point of view, where it is considered the Bible establishes that Xerxes and Artaxerxes were the same king, is that nobody can figure out precisely when one king died and the other began to rule. Further, in the midst of this, the only reference is Themistocles who ended up wealthy and influencial in Persia, completely defecting to their side, and thus being the person who invented the propaganda that Xerxes had died and now "Artaxerxes" was on the throne, whom he was calling his "son", taking advantage of Xerxes' second name.

In the meantime, there are astronomical texts that list a king Artaxerxes "who is also known as Arses" whose rule dated at least to the 27th year. All the alternative names are known for all the other Artaxerxes (i.e. Artaxerxes II was "Menomon", and Art III was "Nothus.") Xerxes' alternative name is thus considered to have been Artaxerxes and visa versa. Now THAT would be a nice "epigraphical" reference to consider here for sure! I'd love for you to explain which king that was referring to.

I'll await your reply.

LG47
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Old 04-26-2007, 12:07 AM   #186
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DEATH OF DARIUS BY HERODOTUS, REQUESTED REFERENCE:

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Originally Posted by spin View Post
Go with Ctesias: Herodotus was not necessarily too good with Mesopotamian issues and Ctesias spent time in the Persian court. What is the exact reference in Herodotus, by the way?
Book 7.4 "After appointing Xerxes as his successor, Darius rturned his mind to military matters. But then, a year after the Egyptian rebellion, while he was in the middle of his preparations, it so happened that Darius died, after a reign of thirty-six years in all, before he had the chance to punish either the rebellious Egyptians or the Athenians. After his death the kingdom passed to his son Xerxes."

This has to be contrasted with Pesepolis, begun in the 4th year of Darius and clearly showing Xerxes not only an adult but already co-ruler. How is it that only a few years before his death, late in his rule is he appointing Xerxes? Xerxes was already appointed as co-ruler successor as early as the 4th year of Darius.

Furthermore, another consideration is that the MEDES were always the strong and major part of the empire. The royal line of the medes continued through Cyrus who was married to the daughter of Astyages (per Ktesias). Darius the Mede, the uncle-in-law of Cyrus had no children and Astyages no male heir. So the children of Cyrus were half Mede in the royal line. Darius I just married Atossa, the daughter of Cyrus and thus carried the royal line of the Medes as well. So when Darius usurped the throne, being purely Persian, the Medes suddenly did not have a royal representative on the throne, but they did with Xerxes, so Xerxes was made co-ruler right away.

So here's your HOMEWORK ASSIGNMENT: How is it that Xerxes is shown as an adult and co-ruler with Darius in his 4th year, when per Herodotus Darius didn't even Marry Atossa and have children until after he began his rule? That is, Xerxes shouldn't have been no more than 3 or 4 years old in the 4th year of Darius when he began to build Persepolis, right?

I know you have a perfectly good explanation, but I'd still like to hear it, if you don't mind. Sorry, "You're paranoid!" doesn't count.

LG47
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Old 04-26-2007, 12:14 AM   #187
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Originally Posted by spin View Post

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47
Did you know that Herodotus claims there was an eclipse in the spring the year Xerxes invaded Greece? After the original revisions, the timeline was back in sync by the time of Xerxes' invasion in 424BCE, an Olympics year. And there was also an eclipse in the spring that year. Where's that eclipse in 480 BCE?
The eclipse you show is NOT in the beginning spring. Here's the specific reference:

PERSIAN WARS, BOOK VII 37: "..having first wintered in Sardis, bean its march towards Abydos, fully equippped, on the first approach of spring. At the moment of departure, the sun suddenly quitted his seat in the heavens and disappeared, though there were no clouds in sight, but the sky was clear and serene."

Your eclipse occurs during the winter of 480, Xerxes had conquered Greece by then.

The eclipse in 480 BCE, however, occurs on the very first day of Spring.

Nice try, Spin, but sorry, not accepted. Most historians just note there was no eclipse here and this reference must just be a bogus reference.


YOUR OCTOBER ECLIPSE:



424BCE ECLIPSE, the very beginning of spring, the first day of spring, MARCH 21



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I must admit one of the things you ignored a while ago is that if you redate the 431BCE eclipse to nearly 30 years later, you suddenly don't have an eclipse for the beginning of spring seven years later.


spin
Which again addresses your lack of understanding of what is going on. But you're getting close. Please pay attention. The 424BCE eclipse is part of the 403BCE chronology. The 431BCE chronology dates the invasion of Xerxes in 480BCE, where there is no eclipse in the spring. The 402BCE eclipse which begins the war in 403BCE means the invasion of Xerxes falls in 424BCE where it originally did and there IS the above eclipse in the spring.

Thus note. The war begins in 403BCE and the 10th year of the war ends a 30-year peace agreement in 394BCE. This would be the original 30-year peace agreement evoked at the time of Xerxes' invasion, presumably, so we use this reference to test the dating for Xerxes invasion 30 years earlier than 394BCE, which is 424BCE. See? We have two tests, initially:

1) Is this an Olympic year? YES.
2) Is there an eclipse at the very beginning of spring this year? YES.

We then test against Bible chronology:

1) If Xerxes invasion was in 424BCE, then the Battle of Marathon would fall in 434BCE. Per the Bible that is the 6th of Darius when the 1st of Cyrus is dated to 455BCE! The temple was completed 22 years after it began in the last month of the 6th of Darius, that means 433BCE + 22 = 455BCE. Therefore, Darius, only ruling for six years, would have to die the same year as the Battle of Marathon!

Herodotus claims that it was after Marathon that Darius dies, but gives this cryptic reference of a soldier with a "huge beard" at Marathon:

"There fell in this battle of Marathon, on the side of the barbarians, about six thousand and four hundred men; on that of the Athenians, one hundred and ninety-two. Such was the number of the slain on the one side and the other. A strange prodigy likewise happened at this fight. Epizelus, the son of Cuphagoras, an Athenian, was in the thick of the fray, and behaving himself as a brave man should, when suddenly he was stricken with blindness, without blow of sword or dart; and this blindness continued thenceforth during the whole of his after life. The following is the account which he himself, as I have heard, gave of the matter: he said that a gigantic warrior, with a huge beard, which shaded all his shield, stood over against him, but the ghostly semblance passed him by, and slew the man at his side. Such, as I understand, was the tale which Epizelus told."

It goes without saying that the best known Persian with a beard that large was the king himself:



This places Darius at Marathon and thus explains why Xerxes invaded Greece ten years later with a vengeance, just to punish the Athenians.

So perfect. The battle of Marathon and the death of Darius in his sixth year lines up perfectly with the 455BCE chronology and the redated PPW to 403BCE. The extra confirmatory eclipse in the spring of 424BCE adds one more degree of authenticity.

This is in contrast with the regular chronology which sports a poorly matched eclipse in 431BCE, dismissed by Stephenson as a non-match astronomically, and a reference that claims that Plato was consulted to help resolve the plague (the Delian Problem) when he wasn't even born yet in 431BCE but would have been 25 years old in 403BCE.

So whose living in a fantasy world, did you say?




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Old 04-26-2007, 12:22 AM   #188
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And why didn't he continue to document major events during the rest of his long, 36-year rule? Why stop documenting? That's the question. But under the question that he actually died shortly afterwards, that explains it.
Sorry, but he did document it: on his tomb among other places.

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A great god is Ahuramazda, who created this earth, who created yonder sky, who created man, who created happiness for man, who made Darius king, one king of many, one lord of many.

I am Darius the great king, king of kings, king of countries containing all kinds of men, king in this great earth far and wide, son of Hystaspes, an Achaemenid, a Persian, son of a Persian, an Aryan, having Aryan lineage.

King Darius says: By the favor of Ahuramazda these are the countries which I seized outside of Persia; I ruled over them; they bore tribute to me; they did what was said to them by me; they held my law firmly; Media, Elam, Parthia, Aria, Bactria, Sogdia, Chorasmia, Drangiana, Arachosia, Sattagydia, Gandara, India, the haoma-drinking Scythians, the Scythians with pointed caps, Babylonia, Assyria, Arabia, Egypt, Armenia, Cappadocia, Lydia, the Greeks, the Scythians across the sea, Thrace, the sun hat-wearing Greeks, the Libyans, the Nubians, the men of Maka and the Carians.
http://www.livius.org/aa-ac/achaemenians/DNa.html

All that in only four years?

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Old 04-26-2007, 12:49 AM   #189
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So here's your HOMEWORK ASSIGNMENT: How is it that Xerxes is shown as an adult and co-ruler with Darius in his 4th year, when per Herodotus Darius didn't even Marry Atossa and have children until after he began his rule? That is, Xerxes shouldn't have been no more than 3 or 4 years old in the 4th year of Darius when he began to build Persepolis, right?

I know you have a perfectly good explanation, but I'd still like to hear it, if you don't mind. Sorry, "You're paranoid!" doesn't count.
Hrrrmmmm....tough one. Let me think.....

First came: The order to build in his 4th year. Then came: The planning. Then came: THE BUILDING OF A MASSIVE FREAKING PLATFORM AND ITS DECORATIVE CARVINGS AND FORTIFICATIONS. On top of which came: The building of the Apadana, where the reliefs were set into the Eastern and Northern stairs. The Eastern stairs were finished by Darius, the Northern stairs were finished by Xerxes.

Only an idiot, would think the reliefs for the Apadana stairways were made in the first year, before anything else was built.


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Old 04-26-2007, 12:49 AM   #190
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No evidence means fantasy. Either you try to make the claim that Xenophon revised Thucydides or you give it up as a dishonest ploy.
Okay. I'll try and hunt down a reference; one that comments on the history of Thucydides and that it was "redacted" and one that at least implies that Xenophon might have been involved since he begins his history right where Thucydides leaves off. But that's fair, I need to have the references for this.

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Such as you. You've been parading not as an expert but an "expert", who doesn't even use serious sources. Did you get your much of stuff out of a Watchtower publication?
Many of the "serious" sources I've found are incorrect, so why should I use them? Anyway, we're discussing a SPECIFIC ASTRONOMICAL TEXT, the VAT4956. Are you saying that the "moon" in line 18 was a responsible and honest representation of the 15th of Sivan as portrayed by Sachs/Hunger? The British Museum acknowledges the apparent "error." The VAT4956 is considered a key text in this dating. It's definitely a "serious" source. You're just handwaving.


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Number twiddling got you into this mess in the first place. You started by ignoring what astronomers who make a living working with astronomy have already done and revising it, regardless of what they had done.
Sorry, but you're out of your depth here. Astronomy is one thing, what an astronomical text says is another. We're just making comparisons between the astronomy and what the text says. Astronomers can't control what an astronomical text says.


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Running? Another novel word in this context, with all its irony. Let's forget about evidence such as epigraphy. Let's reinvent the wheel -- and make it square because it looks so cool and never mind the fact that it doesn't work.
NO. It's your move here. You give me the specific reference of the "epigraphy" you want to discuss. I don't know specifically what you're talking about. So you provide the epigraphy and I'll give my argument on it. WHERE IS IT?


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I have cited other more recent studies, which you typically ignore ignore ignore ignore. If it's not denial, you need to give a better word for this willfulness.
What? No links back to what you are specifically referring to? That's interesting. Some have claimed I haven't answered something and I have, they just missed the reply. So if you're serious about following up, you have to give the links. Otherwise, it is presumed you are just generalizing and making this up.

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I don't give a hoot for what Rohl did. He has little connection with reality. He chops a leg off a stool and wonders why it won't stand up and out of desperation he attempts to chop another leg off, but it won't cut.
So. Does that mean that eclipse didn't occur in the 12th of Akhenaten? Can you actually establish otherwise? If so, why don't you. When you run out of answers you attack the messenger. Here, you need to address the MESSAGE, the EVIDENCE. Anybody can act upset and call names. You have to do better.

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Depending on Rohl is like depending on a straw while you're drowning.
You're drowning. That eclipse was dated by FR Stephenson to 1375BCE. That's the only authority I need.

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There was no fall of Jericho. The walls are intact. You can go and look at them. They've been uncovered near the main gate of the town (1998). Try as hard as you can to find those walls came tumbling down. :wave:
Reference, please? When you ask for a reference, I give it to you. So where are your references for your claims?

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Modern historical analysis of Egyptian chronology has nothing to do with either Manetho or Syncellus. Why don't you get up to date?
You're dreaming. The moment Syncellus mentioned 17th of "Apophis" that connects into the Egyptian timeline. End of story.

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Do you honestly think that Hunger wouldn't get a laugh out of this "no, no, it's not what you said, it's what I say" stuff? Where is the evidence for rewriting Hunger's analysis in that letter?? Please do send it to Hunger.
I've already sent it Hunger and written him and he's written me back. He's not laughing. Basically Sachs and Hunger are great translators and did their best with the astronomy at a time when we didn't have computerized astronomy programs. So it's inevitable on review and recharting with the new programs that there will be refinements. I was just offering my suggestions. But he knows "the moon" was not the right reference for line 18, unless he made a comment about a mismatch, which he didn't. He placed it there with no comment, suggesting all was well and this was a correct match. Only someone checking the astronomy of this specific line would have noticed it. It needs to be changed. He hasn't done it that I know up and the book has been published twice I believe.

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Have you got a photocopy of their response?
Um NO. BUT do you want to write them again? I will and will share the interaction with you. It will be FUN! Or you can do it. I'll give you a draft letter for them. It can be simple. Just write them and note that Line 18 of the VAT4956 inserts "the moon" without an error comment for the 15th of Sivan, however, the moon was in Capricorn at the time. But of note, you noticed that VENUS was present below beta-Virginis on that date. Then ask whether this has been corrected in any scholarly journals that they know of and if so which, you'd like to read the comments. Then they respond in like a couple of days. They're quite good. Then you can see yourself. BUT YOU NEED COACHING AND MONITORING! They will blow you off if you don't know what you're doing. You have to be very specific and deal with one specific issue only. The reason we are writing is only to confirm whether the author has made an "official" correction of this error. That's all. That gives them the chance to indicate it has or hasn't that they know of. If it has been corrected, then we'll go and look it up and see what it says! WANT TO? Let's do it!!!

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I'd recommend that you publish your findings in a peer review journal.
I might do that. I was in contact with the University of Hawaii astronomy department regarding my two-part discovery/update, that of how the ancient Assyrians and Egyptians were able to predict a certain kind of eclipse. What you do is find a professor who teaches that or who is interested in it. No one there was really into ancient history or ancient astronomy. But once you do that, you then explain it fully to someone in the field who understands it and then they take that and co-publish with you or publish it themselves as a review and give you credit for the discovery.

TECHNICALLY, I should get credit for this eclipse pattern and it should be named after me! The "Larguy47 Predictable Ancient Eclipe Pattern" or something. When people discover things, it gets named after them. Then they can update the information on ancient predictable eclipses instead of claiming there was no such thing as NASA is doing now, and it's just not true.


LG47
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