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Old 08-23-2010, 04:44 AM   #21
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Are you trying to do history or what?
I see the proper interpretation of texts as being preserved in tradition, living or otherwise.
You can see whatever you like, but it has no necessary connection with what happened in the past or what the earliest texts were talking about.

You obviously don't coherently believe this stuff you are saying, because you are very happy to ignore christian traditions.

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When the rabbinic sources say for instance that the messiah would appear as a secular monarch like David, I think this is all that we need to know about what a messiah is or was ever intended to be.
I'll refrain from ridiculing you, but say this is very, very sorry stuff. You seem to hope beyond logic that the surviving factions of Jewish religious thought understood the content of the inner priestly religious thought of centuries before the Jewish War. The high priestly line was cut off with Onias III and the son who went off to Egypt to set up a new temple at Heliopolis. First break with ruling religious thought. Then we had the priestly faction decimated with the siege of the temple in 63 BCE. Herod had to look to Mesopotamia or Egypt for suitable priests. Hence, another abstraction from the ruling religious thought.

I'm happy to use rabbinical thought for the first century, but before that it becomes radically less meaningful.

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I see no point in arguing that THE awaited messiah COULD HAVE BEEN a high priest unless such a tradition emerges from within Judaism.
Why are you suddenly talking about messiahs? It is totally irrelevant to an understanding of Dan 9. The anointed ruler is obviously not messianic and the anointed one being cut off is also plainly not messianic.

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I am not telling you how you should conduct your research. Maybe its a cultural thing. Mabye I say Topol too many times on stage when I was growing up.
You were the person retrojecting the views of rabbis into Daniel.

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In this matter, we have a prophesy attributed to a Daniel the court eunuch who lived in the Babylonian period but which was undoubtedly written in the Persian or Greek period. How the hell are we to determine what Daniel really thought?
The method is always the same in doing text criticism. You start with your text in its context. In this case Dan 9 in the immeidate context of the other visions, with 2 Maccabees and with all the historical indication of the era you can get your hands on.

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If I was a pious Jew or Christian maybe I might care what the 'Holy Spirit' told Daniel. But I am only interested in knowable commodities.
And so you should be.

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It is evident that all surviving Jewish interpretation connect the end of the seventy weeks with the destruction of the temple. Was this 'Daniel's formulation? No undoubtedly not but it is a formulation we have a better chance figuring out than the prophesy of an unknown Daniel who lived at a time which is difficult to determine.
Perhaps this is of interest to you, but it is not a reflection of the text. The text has a lot to say, if people would only read it all.

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Eusebius is an important witness. He was familiar with a lot of texts and traditions. The caution he exhibits promoting what is clearly his own 'innovation' regarding the anointed prince as the high priest Jeshua is telling. It's like he is saying 'I know what you guys are all thinking - the anointed prince has to be a secular ruler, but, if you look at things a certain way you can argue that the high priests were like governors.' A telling argument.
He is irrelevant... at least until you can show how you can actually make it relevant to understanding the text of Daniel. And I rather doubt that you can. He is writing 500 years after the fact. How could one discern what is relevant and what is not??

The best case you can hope for is that he points you to some more reliable source.

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If knew ANY authorities which argued on behalf of Jeshua he'd tell us and he doesn't so they didn't exist or they weren't known to Eusebius.
That's really meaningful. You may as well try to elicit what he knows about the writers of the Dead Sea Scrolls. Doh! Eusebius is a witness to his own times, including what texts were available to him. That's usually as far as you can get.


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Old 08-23-2010, 07:24 AM   #22
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While I agree that the name Daniel was probably chosen because it represented the ancient hero of old, not an actual person, the Seventy Weeks passage in Chapter 9 is a self contained cryptogram. The text actually says specifically when the period began: "from the time that the word went out to restore and rebuild Jerusalem" (Dan. 9:25b). This is generally acknowledged to be an allusion to Jeremiah 29:10, which is set in circumstances that would date to about 597 BCE.

Now I have my own oh so wrong but credible way to interpret this cryptogram* as covering events between 597 and 164 BCE, but just because the story - as written - may refer to events leading into the 2nd century BCE doesn't mean that later commentators (Christian and Jewish, ancient and modern) couldn't wrest other interpretations out of it for their own ideological reasons. And who is to say that defined events HAVE to be sequential, and not have intervening periods between them that have nothing to do with the "meaning" of the defined events?

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Most people see the periods 7 (7x7=49), 62 (7x62=434), 1 (1x7=7) as sequential to equal 70 (7x70=490). By leaving open the question of whether an anointed one was a king/ruler or high priest, the seventy weeks of Dan 9 can be understood as a sophisticated cryptogram:

597-------------------<434 yrs>------------------164
597 - <49 yrs> - 548 - <378 yrs> - 171 - <7 yrs> - 164

The governing period of the cryptogram is actually 62 weeks of years, starting with the year in which Jeremiah 29:10 *appears* to have been uttered (circa 597/6 BCE, based on Jer. 29:2), and thus ending 163/2 BCE. A "seventy" year-week cryptogram was formed by taking the 62 year-week base period, plus the initial seven year-weeks plus the final year-week that are actually contained within it, and arbitrarily adding them together. Besides, for a 70 week (490 year) governing period to end circa 164 BCE would mean it started 653 BCE!

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Daniel 9:24 "Seventy weeks are decreed for your people and your holy city:
to finish the transgression,
to put an end to sin,
and to atone for iniquity,
to bring in everlasting righteousness,
to seal both vision and prophet,
and to anoint a most holy place.

Daniel 9:25b from the time that the word went out to restore and rebuild Jerusalem (Jer 29:10, ca. 597 BCE) until the time of an anointed prince (Cyrus, as in Isa 25:1), there shall be seven weeks (49 yrs, making this ca 548 BCE);
25c and for sixty-two weeks (starting in 597 BCE) it (Jerusalem) shall be built again with streets and moat, but in a troubled time.
26a After the sixty-two weeks (ca. 597 - 434 = ca. 163 BCE), an anointed one (Menelaus) shall be cut off and shall have nothing,
26b and the troops of the prince who is to come (Antiochus IV) shall destroy the city (Jerusalem) and the sanctuary (ca 169-168 BCE). Its end shall come with a flood, and to the end there shall be war. Desolations are decreed.
27a He (Antiochus IV) shall make a strong covenant with many for one week (ca 171 BCE with the appointment of Menelaus, to ca. 164 BCE when Judas displaced him for a high priest of his choosing),
27b and for half of the week (6 Dec 167 BCE, or earlier, to 13 Dec 164 BCE, not exactly 3.5 years but just over 3 years) he shall make sacrifice and offering cease; and in their place shall be an abomination that desolates, until the decreed end is poured out upon the desolator (Judas' defeat of Antiochus' forces which resulted in the rededication of the temple, 14 Dec 164 BCE)."
Makes sense to me that Daniel's prophecies related to his own time. The book is a recapitulation of Jewish history down to the Hellenizers who threatened Judah after Antiochus III. If the start date is 597 then the sixty-two weeks brings us to the end of Antiochus IV. The Babylonian setting for the story may have been chosen specifically to echo Jeremiah's seventy year prophecy.
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