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Old 07-24-2006, 06:01 PM   #21
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Originally Posted by jjramsey
OTOH, while we obviously aren't familiar with shock from angels, we do have a rough picture of what it's like to be scared speechless.
You need a rough picture of what it's like to be too scared by an experience to tell anyone about it in order to obtain relevance to the story. The implied temporary nature of the reaction your choice of phrase carries just disappears when we stick to what is actually written, doesn't it?

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It's the "told no one" = "permanent silence" that looks like junk to me.
Certainly less than this "told no one" = "temporarily shocked mute" nonsense but the silence doesn't have to be permanent in order to contradict the immediate reports described in the other versions.
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Old 07-24-2006, 06:05 PM   #22
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But if they "told no one" but the silence was only temporary, why would Mark even find it necessary to include that fact, especially since Luke shows them telling the disciples almost immediately anyway.
Well, Mark obviously doesn't know about Luke.

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Perhaps Mark is, himself, the man in a white robe who greets them in the tomb with word of Christ's resurrection (he is not really said to be an angel in this account).
Considering the reaction of the women and the command from the man in white to not be afraid, it is implausible that the man in white was supposed to be anything but an angel, and certainly not Mark. The "do not be afraid" is standard-issue OT angelophany.
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Old 07-24-2006, 06:11 PM   #23
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I'm going to play "devil's advocate" here since, personally, I think the whole Jesus story is a work of fiction. But I can see how an inerrantist might slither out of this one.

Since John DOESN'T record the baptism, you might be able to assume that the baptism happened earlier (off camera, so to speak) as did the 40 days in the wilderness (also off camera). Then, John picks the story up after Jesus has returned and has started gathering the disciples. Could this be a possible "out" for the inerrantist?
Conceded. John is telling people about Jesus and then says, "Look, here comes that Lamb of God now!" I guess Jesus could've been just arriving back from the wilderness.

But then GJohn has Jesus at this point annex two of John the B's followers, here at the river: Andrew and the unnamed disiple. Andrew immediately calls his brother Simon Peter to come join up. Then Jesus decides to go to Galilee.

Whereas in GMark, Jesus gets those guys while they are fishing at the Sea of Galilee.

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I think a better "contradiction" might be the way Mark and Matthew describe the calling of James and John compared to the way Luke portrays it in Chapter 5.
James and John as well.
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Old 07-24-2006, 06:14 PM   #24
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Certainly less than this "told no one" = "temporarily shocked mute" nonsense
Mark 16:8: "So they went out and fled from the tomb, for terror and amazement had seized them; and they said nothing to anyone, for they were afraid."

Considering that their silence was directly attributed to their terror, "temporarily shocked mute" is a reasonable interpretation.

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Originally Posted by Amaleq13
but the silence doesn't have to be permanent in order to contradict the immediate reports described in the other versions.
Agreed. But you read my reply to Hallq, so you knew that, right?
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Old 07-24-2006, 06:51 PM   #25
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Originally Posted by Magdlyn
Conceded. John is telling people about Jesus and then says, "Look, here comes that Lamb of God now!" I guess Jesus could've been just arriving back from the wilderness.

But then GJohn has Jesus at this point annex two of John the B's followers, here at the river: Andrew and the unnamed disiple. Andrew immediately calls his brother Simon Peter to come join up. Then Jesus decides to go to Galilee.

Whereas in GMark, Jesus gets those guys while they are fishing at the Sea of Galilee.



James and John as well.
However, in Mark, it doesn't say that that is Jesus' FIRST encounter with them (although the way Mark tells it could certainly lead to that conclusion). In fact, it kind of makes more sense if one assumes Jesus did know the two men before; it makes their suddenly giving up their nets and following him more plausible.
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Old 07-24-2006, 06:53 PM   #26
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Originally Posted by jjramsey
Well, Mark obviously doesn't know about Luke.



Considering the reaction of the women and the command from the man in white to not be afraid, it is implausible that the man in white was supposed to be anything but an angel, and certainly not Mark. The "do not be afraid" is standard-issue OT angelophany.
Good point.

Do you have any theories, then, on who the naked man might be?
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Old 07-24-2006, 06:55 PM   #27
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Does anyone have any possible responses to the contradictions I posted in #6?
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Old 07-24-2006, 06:57 PM   #28
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"God is love." (1 John 4:16)

vs.

The Old Testament
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Old 07-24-2006, 11:24 PM   #29
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Does anyone have any possible responses to the contradictions I posted in #6?
Another discrepancy between the two accounts is that there is one angel in the Matthew passage(Matthew 28), and there are two angels in the John passage(John 20).

As far as using lists of contradictions goes, keep in mind that many "contradictions" were fixed when the New International Version of The Bible was created. Thus, contradictions in The King James version of The Bible may not exist in the NIV Bible.

As far as weasling out of contradiction in the strict sense, there are thousands of possible ways to weasle out. Let me give you a few, and I'm sure you can come up with several more weasling mechanisms after reading these. Just remember that Christians are creative, and there eternal soul is at stake; so, they will think long and hard to get out of any contradictions you come up with. Sometimes it will become a group effort. Furthermore, the explanation only needs to be sufficiently good for them to believe it not you.

It is possible to say that John simply omitted the first conversation with the angel. Thus, the Bible is not errant. The book of John simply has an omission, which is filled by the Book of Matthew. Next, we can say that the angel in Matthew is simply one of the two angels mentioned in the book of John. Furthermore, there are two Marys. You can say stuff like John was describing what the first Mary saw, and Matthew was describing what the second Mary saw, etc. Next, keep in mind that a Christian will generally be a bit sloppy. They will stop once they have a plausibility argument. It may not stand up to scrutiny, but they will give you this pseudo-fallacious argument, and you will have to point out what is wrong with the argument. It is possible to go back and forth 20-30 times, and by the time you have gone through about 15 or so arguments back and forth, they will have forgotten what number 1 was, and they will run the same argument by you again. They're not trying to be difficult, they simply can't remember. Being exposed to an internal inconsistency in The Bible is a pretty traumatic experience for a Christian. It is kinda like someone telling you a bunch of stuff about string theory or low dimensional topology. Your mind just doesn't absorb it.
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Old 07-25-2006, 05:15 AM   #30
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Isn't this all a storm in a teacup? The fundamentalist position is that the Bible is inerrant, but any apologetic will involve omissions or the admission of misunderstandings - the authors being human, in point of fact - which detracts not only from inerrancy, but from scripture being "God-breathed" (2 Tim 3:16 NIV - the best translation of that phrase, I always thought, much better than "inspired by God").
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